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QUESTION 1
Given:

11

Which option enables the code to compile?

12

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragment:

21

What is the result?

A.    [Robb, Rick, Bran]
B.    [Robb, Rick]
C.    [Robb, Bran, Rick, Bran]
D.    An exception is thrown at runtime.

Answer: A
Explanation:
After adding elements to names we have a list with four elements and element “Bran” repeated.
After removing element “Bran” we have a list with three elements [Robb, Rick, Bran].
remove method removes the first occurrence of the specified element from this list, if it is present. If the list does not contain the element, it is unchanged.
https://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/api/java/util/ArrayList.html#remove-java.lang.Object-

QUESTION 3
Given:

31

What is the result?

A.    C B A
B.    C
C.    A B C
D.    Compilation fails at line n1 and line n2

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given:

41

What is the result?

A.    3 4 5 6
B.    3 4 3 6
C.    5 4 5 6
D.    3 6 4 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since variable i is static, it is shared by all instances of X. When code executes x2.i = 5, x1.i = 5 too.
Since variable j isn’t static, each instance of X has its own copy of j.

QUESTION 5
Given the code fragment:

51

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 3, enables the code to print 10:20?

A.    int[] array = new int[2];
B.    int[] array;
array = int[2];
C.    int array = new int[2];
D.    int array [2] ;

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:

61

What is the result?

A.    A B C Work done
B.    A B C D Work done
C.    A Work done
D.    Compilation fails

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism?

A.    Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B.    Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C.    Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D.    Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E.    Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
B is false. Standard exceptions not cover all possible errors.
D is false. Exceptions don’t have to be handled in the method in which they occurred.

QUESTION 8
Given the code from the Greeting.Java file:

81

Which set of commands prints Hello Duke in the console?

82

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: C
Explanation:
Source code file names must have .java suffixes to compile with javac
We interpret or run the program with “java <class name without suffix> arguments”
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/javac.html
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/java.html

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QUESTION 1
View the exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table. Continue reading

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QUESTION 1
Examine the following commands:

# groupadd project
# mkdir /usr/share/project
# chown -r root.project /usr/share/project
# qpasswd -a scott project
# qpasswd -a foo project
# chmod 2775 /usr/share/project

Based on the commands, which statement is correct?

A.    Any new file created in the /usr/share/project folder by user scott will not be possible for foo to modify it.
B.    All members of the project group need the administrator’s help to change the file permission every time users write new files in the /usr/share/project folder.
C.    Files created by all members of the project group in the /usr/share/project folder will get the same group permission as the folder itself.
D.    The chmod command can only take a tree-digit argument.

Answer: A
Explanation:
*A permission of “2755” for a directory means that everyone has read and execute permission, while the file owner and members of the file’s group additionally have write permission. And any files or subdirectories created in that directory will inherit the parent directory’s group id.
Incorrect:
Not D: chmod 2775 is a valid command.

QUESTION 2
View the exhibit.

21

Examine the grub.conf file snippet in the Exhibit. Which statement is true if your Linux system boots by using this grub.conf file?

A.    GRUB will boot, by default, the first kernel entry of this grub.conf file.
B.    GRUB will prompt you to select the kernel to be booted because the default parameter is set to 0.
C.    GRUB will boot the kernel specified in the inittab file of the system.
D.    GRUB will boot, by default, the second kernel entry of this grub.conf file.

Answer: A
Explanation:
According the grub .conf file you have got 8 seconds to choose whether to boot the first entry.Now if you want to change, and let say you want the second grub entry as booting system by default, justchange the line:default=0 bydefault=1

QUESTION 3
The DBA tells you that the system is not overloaded but you can tell that the system us actively swapping. What command would you run to show this information to the DBA?

A.    # iotop
B.    # iostat 5 10
C.    # cat /proc/meminfo
D.    # vmstat 5 10

Answer: B
Explanation:
*iostat – Report Central Processing Unit (CPU) statistics and input/output statistics for devices, partitions and network filesystems (NFS).
*The iostat command is used for monitoring system input/output device loading by observing the time the devices are active in relation to their average transfer rates. The iostat command generates reports that can be used to change system configuration to better balance the input/output load between physical disks.
Incorrect:
Not A: Related to kernel and processes.
*iotop – simple top-like I/O monitor
*iotop watches I/O usage information output by the Linux kernel (requires 2.6.20 or later) and displays a table of current I/O usage by processes or threads on the system.
*iotop displays columns for the I/O bandwidth read and written by each process/thread during the sampling period. It also displays the percentage of time the thread/process spent while swapping in and while waiting on I/O. For each process, its I/O priority (class/level) is shown. In addition, the total I/O bandwidth read and written during the sampling period is displayed at the top of the interface.
Not C: related to RAM usage.
*The entries in the /proc/meminfo can help explain what’s going on with your memory usage, if you know how to read it.
*High-Level Statistics
MemTotal: Total usable ram (i.e. physical ram minus a few reserved bits and the kernel binary code)
MemFree: Is sum of LowFree+HighFree (overall stat) MemShared: 0; is here for compat reasons but always zero. Buffers: Memory in buffer cache. mostly useless as metric nowadays Cached: Memory in the pagecache (diskcache) minus SwapCache SwapCache: Memory that once was swapped out, is swapped back in but still also is in the swapfile (if memory is needed it doesn’t need to be swapped out AGAIN because it is already in the swapfile. This saves I/O)
Not D:vmstat – Report virtual memory statistics

QUESTION 4
View the cron job example below. How often will this cron job run?

0 */ 5 * * * command

A.    every 5 minutes
B.    every 5 hours
C.    every 5 days
D.    every 5th month

Answer: B
Explanation:
Execute a cron job every 5 Hours
The second field is for hours. If you specify * in this field, it runs every hour. If you specify */5 in the 2nd field, it runs every 5 hours as shown below.
0 */5 * * * /home/ramesh/backup.sh

QUESTION 5
What happens when the following command is run?

# authconfig – – passalgo = md5 – – update

A.    It produces the MD5 checksum of the input data.
B.    It configures the MD5 checksum for newly authored documents
C.    It converts the stdio input to MD5 algorithm.
D.    It changes the user password hashing algorithm to MD5.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Identify the two kernels that are shipped with Oracle Linux 6.

A.    Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel
B.    Unbeatable Enterprise Kernel 11g
C.    Red Hat Compatible Kernel
D.    Linux Compatible Kernel
E.    Solaris 11 Container Kernel

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Oracle Linux 6 ships with two sets of kernel packages:
*Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel [kernel-uek-2.6.32-100.28.5.el6] Only available on the x86_64 (64 bit) platform
Installed and booted by default
*Red Hat compatible Kernel [kernel-2.6.32-71.el6] Installed by default

QUESTION 7
You have to find the default run level of your Oracle Linux system.
Which file will help you find this information?

A.    /boot/grub/grub.conf
B.    /etc/inittab
C.     /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit
D.     /etc/rc.local
E.     /etc/rc.d/init.d

Answer: B
Explanation:
The default run level is specified in the /etc/inittab file.

QUESTION 8
On your Oracle Linux 6 system, you have to configure the eth0 network interface to 100 MB/sec, half duplex without trying to autonegotiate. Which command will help you configure this requirement?

A.    # ifconfig eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
B.    # ethtool interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
C.    # ifconfig interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
D.    # ethtool -seth0speed 100 autoneg off duplex half

Answer: D
Explanation:
When I have a device that is acting up, I tend to run: ethtool ethX, check the Supported link modes, the Link partner advertised link modes and the actual speed and Duplex. If my Supported link mode is set low (say 10/Half for some reason) but my switch supports 1000baseT/Full then I’ll use ethtool -s ethX to change my ethernet settings to 1000baseT/Full. Just about anything you see from: ethtool ethX, can be changed with ethtool -S ethX. In this case you would use the following:
ethtool -S eth0 speed 1000 duplex full autoneg on

QUESTION 9
As a system administrator, you run the system-config-network tool and make changes to the configuration. You change the hostname and the DNS search path settings. Which two files will these changes be written into?

A.    “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
B.    “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “etc/nsswitch.conf/” files
C.    “/etc/sysconfig/netconfig” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
D.    “etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are correct about the Oracle ASMLib library?

A.    Oracle ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management (ASM) feature.
B.    To use ASMLib library, you have to recompile it first for the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel.
C.    Oracle Automatic Storage management (ASM) requires Oracle ASMLib library to function completely.
D.    Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is included in the Unbreakable Kernel.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A (not C):ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management feature of the Oracle Database.
ASMLib allows an Oracle Database using ASM more efficient and capable access to the disk groups it is using.
D (not B):The Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is now included in the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel. No driver package needs to be installed when using this kernel.

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true regarding Flex ASM on a four-node cluster consisting of three-hub nodes and a leaf node?

A.    An ASM instance and database instances can coexist on the same hub node.
B.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any leaf node.
C.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
D.    A database instance on a leaf node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
E.    A database instance on a hub node uses an ASM instance as an I/O server when requesting I/O todiskgroups.
F.    ASM Cluster File System (ASFS) can only be deployed on hub nodes.

Answer: ACF
Explanation:
Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD). However application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Note:
Hub Nodes are connected among them via private network and have direct access to the shared storage just like previous versions. These nodes are the ones that access the Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD) directly.
Leaf Nodes are lighter and are not connected among them, neither accesses the shared storage like the Hub Nodes. Each Leaf Node communicates with the Hub Node that is attached to, and it is connected to the cluster via the Hub Node that is linked to.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about initialization parameters for Clustered ASM instances?

A.    A change to ASM_DISKSTRING requires a restart of all ASM instances for the change to take effect.
B.    ASM_POWER_LIMIT controls he number of RDBMS instances that can access a disk group while it isbeing rebalanced.
C.    The ASM_DISKGROUP parameter is optional.
D.    The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is ASM.
E.    The maximum value of ASM_POWER_LIMIT is 1024.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
C: The default value of the ASM_DISKGROUPS parameter is a NULL string. If the parameter value is NULL or is not specified, then ASM does not mount any disk groups.
E: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
D: The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is RDBMS.
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asminst.htm#BHCEHJGA

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true concerning diagnostic components and requirements of Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    There is one ologgered service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
B.    The Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database must run on a hub node if Flex Clusters areused.
C.    There is one osysmond service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
D.    The oclumon utility may be used to get and set parameters for the cluster health monitor (CHM) repository.
E.    The diagcollection.pl script must be run from the Grid home directory as the Grid infrastructure owner.
F.    The clusterware log files are stored inside the Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database usedby the cluster health monitor (CHM).

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: The Oracle Grid Infrastructure Management Repository Runs on one node in the cluster.This must be a Hub Node in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration.
C: There is one system monitor service on every node. The system monitor service (osysmond) is a real-time, monitoring and operating system metric collection service that sends the data to the cluster logger service.
D: Use the oclumon manage command to view and change configuration information from the system monitor service.
Syntax
   oclumon manage -repos {{changeretentiontime time} | {changerepossize
   memory_size}} | -get {key1 [key2 …] | alllogger [-details] | mylogger [-details]}
Where changerepossize memory_size: Use this option to change the CHM repository space limit to a specified number of MB.
Note: The OCLUMON command-line tool is included with CHM and you can use it to query the CHM repository to display node-specific metrics for a specified time period. You can also use OCLUMON to perform miscellaneous administrative tasks, such as changing the debug levels, querying the version of CHM, and changing the metrics database size.
Incorrect Answers:
E: You can collect CHM data from any node in the cluster by running the Grid_home/bin/diagcollection.pl script on the node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/troubleshoot.htm#CHDIGCEC

QUESTION 4
PROD1, PROD2 and PROD3 are three active instances of the PROD database.
Examine these commands executed on PROD1:

SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=200 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’*’; SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=100 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’PROD1′;

Which statement is true?

A.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for all instances of PROD.
B.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 100 for all instances of PROD.
C.    The second statement returns an error because this parameter must be identical for all isntances.
D.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for PROD2 and PROD3 and 100 for PROD1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
First SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS is set to 200 for all instances, then it is set to 100 for PROD1.

QUESTION 5
Which three events occur when a hub node fails in an Oracle Clusterware 12c Flex Cluster?

A.    The hub node is evicted from the cluster
B.    Leaf nodes connected to the failing hub node are reconnected to a surviving hub node without servicedisruption.
C.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving hub nodes.
D.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving leaf nodes.
E.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes.
F.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving leaf nodes.
G.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes or leafnodes, or both.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
F, G: Leaf Nodes are different from standard Oracle Grid Infrastructure nodes, in that they do not require direct access to shared storage, but instead request data through Hub Nodes. Hub Nodes can run in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration without having any Leaf Nodes as cluster member nodes, but Leaf Nodes must be members of a cluster that includes at least one Hub Node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/bigcluster.htm#CWADD92409

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about Flex ASM in a Flex Cluster?

A.    Oracle databases from releases older than 12c cannot use Flex ASM.
B.    ASFS may only be configured on a hub node running an ASM instance.
C.    Instances of ASM-based databases on hosts that have no ASM instance running, require Flex ASM.
D.    Flex ASM requires that I/Os requests be sent through an ASM Proxy Instance, regardless of database andASM instance placement in a cluster.
E.    Hub nodes with connections from multiple leaf nodes must run an ASM instance.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
B: Oracle Automatic Storage Management Cluster File System (Oracle ACFS) can only be run on the hub nodes, not the leaf nodes. Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD).
E: application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Oracle Flex ASM can be implemented in two ways:
Pure 12c Flex ASM (Same Version)
Both Grid Infrastructure (GI) and Database running on Oracle 12c
Pre Oracle 12c Mixed (Different Versions)
As normal ASM instance will run on each node with Flex configuration to support pre 12c database. The compatibility parameter of ASM disk group is used to manage the compatibility of between and among database instances. Advantage of this approach is that if an Oracle 12c database instance loses connectivity with an ASM instance, then the database connections will failover to another ASM instance on a different server. This failover is achieved by setting the cardinality to all.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 7
Which three statements are true about the cluster file system archiving scheme?

A.    Each node can read only the archived logs written by itself.
B.    Nodes don’t use network to archive files.
C.    Each node can read the archive redo log files of the other nodes.
D.    Each node archives to a uniquely named local directory.
E.    Each node archives to a local directory with the same path on each cluster node.
F.    Each node writes to a single location on the cluster file system while archiving the redo log files.

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
Initialization Parameter Settings for the Cluster File System Archiving Scheme
In the cluster file system scheme, each node archives to a directory that is identified with the same name on all instances within the cluster database (/arc_dest, in the following example). To configure this directory, set values for the LOG_ARCH_DEST_1 parameter, as shown in the following example:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/RACAD/rman.htm#RACAD320

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true regarding multitenant architecture for RAC databases?

A.    One UNDO tablespace for each PDB is required.
B.    One UNDO tablespace for each instance is required.
C.    PDBs can have local temporary tablespaces.
D.    All the containers share the same SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces.
E.    You can open one, several, or all PDBs on one, several, or all CDB instances.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
B: For an Oracle RAC CDB, one active undo tablespace exists for each instance.
C: From a physical perspective, a CDB has basically the same structure as a non-CDB, except that each PDB has its own set of tablespaces (including its own SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces) and data files.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/cdblogic.htm#CNCPT89268

QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true about ASM alias names?

A.    ASM files created using an alias name are not OMF files even if OMF is enabled.
B.    Alias file names cannot be used together with templates when creating tablespaces.
C.    ASM files created using an alias name are OMF files even if OMF is not enabled.
D.    Alias names can be stored only in user-defined directories.
E.    ASM files created using an alias name also have a fully qualified name and can be accessed by eithername.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true concerning activation of a user-defined policy in Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    When a policy is first created, it is initially active.
B.    When a policy is activated, nodes may be reassigned to server pools based on the policy definition.
C.    An administrator-defined policy may be activated using the srvctl utility.
D.    When a policy is activated, resources cannot be automatically started to comply with the policy definition.
E.    When a policy is first created, it is initially inactive.
F.    When a policy is activated, resources can be automatically stopped to comply with the policy definition.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
BE: You can activate policies when necessary, prompting Oracle Clusterware to reconfigure a server pool according to each policy’s configuration.
C: The following command activates the DayTime policy:
  $ crsctl modify policyset -attr “LAST_ACTIVATED_POLICY=DayTime”
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/pbmgmt.htm#CWADD92594

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QUESTION 211
RMAN is configured to create backupset backups for your database.
You issue the command to back up the database:

RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;

Which two statements are true about the backup performed by the command?

A.    Only the used blocks in the data files are backed up.
B.    It backs up all the data files and deletes obsolete backups after the backup is complete.
C.    It backs up only those archived log files that are not backed up at least once.
D.    It backs up all the archived log files and deletes the ones that were just backed up.
E.    It backs up all archived redo log files and online log files and deletes the archived log files after the backup is complete.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
You can use BACKUP … DELETE to back up archived redo logs, data file copies, or backup sets and then delete the input files after successfully backing them up.
The BACKUP ARCHIVELOG … DELETE INPUT command deletes archived log files after they are backed up. This command eliminates the separate step of manually deleting archived redo logs.

QUESTION 212
Your database instance is abnormally terminated because of a power outage. At the next startup, from which point in the redo log does the recovery start?

A.    from the last complete checkpoint position
B.    from the beginning of the current redo log file until the instance failure
C.    from the last committed transaction
D.    from the beginning of the current redo log file to the checkpoint position
E.    from the most recent incremental checkpoint

Answer: A
Explanation:
Have a recovery time governed by the number of terminated instances, amount of redo generated in each terminated redo thread since the last checkpoint, and by user-configurable factors such as the number and size of redo log files, checkpoint frequency, and the parallel recovery setting Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28318/startup.htm#CNCPT005

QUESTION 213
Your database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You use RMAN to take image copies and you update these copies incrementally every six hours. After a regular maintenance task, when you attempt to restart the instance, it halts in MOUNT state with an error indicating that one of the data files belonging to the EXAMPLE tablespace is lost.

You want to recover the data file as quickly as possible while maximizing availability for the database.

Examine the possible steps involved in the recovery process:

1. Mount the database.
2. Take the data file offline.
3. Bring the tablespace online.
4. Use the RMAN SWITCH command to switch to the image copy.
5. Recover the tablespace.
6. Open the database.
7. Use the RMAN RESTORE command to switch to the image copy.

Identify the correct sequence of the required steps.

A.    2, 6, 4, 5, 3
B.    2, 4, 5, 3, 6
C.    1, 2, 4, 6, 3
D.    1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6
E.    2, 7, 5, 3

Answer: C

QUESTION 214
Examine the statements that use flashback technologies:

1. FLASHBACK TABLE customers TO TIMESTAMP TO_TIMESTAMP (`2013-02-04 09:30:00′, `YYYY- MM-DD HH:MI:SS’);
2. SELECT * FROM customers AS OF SCN 123456;
3. FLASHBACK TABLE customers TO BEFORE DROP;
4. FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP TO_TIMESTAMP (`2013-02-04 09:30:00′, `YYYY-MM-DD
HH:MI:SS’);
5. SELECT * FROM customers VERSIONS BETWEEM SCN 123456 AND 123999;
6. ALTER TABLE customer FLASHBACK ARCHIVE;

Which set of statements depends on the availability of relevant undo data in the undo tablespace?

A.    1,2,5
B.    1,3,6
C.    2,3,5,6
D.    3,4,5

Answer: C

QUESTION 215
Which two statements are true about RMAN duplexed backups?

A.    It is only supported for backups to tape via media management interface.
B.    It is not supported for image copies.
C.    For performing duplexed backups, the parallelism for the device must be set equal to the number of copies.
D.    Duplex backups can be performed on either disk or media, but cannot be performed on media and disk simultaneously.
E.    Duplex backups can contain only data files and control files.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 216
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database to an Oracle 12c database.

Examine the list of steps that might be used to accomplish this task:

1. Place all user-defined tablespaces in read-only mode on the source database.
2. Use the RMAN convert command to convert data files to the target platform’s endian format, if required.
3. Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the parameters VERSI0N=12, TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS, and FULL=Y.
4. Transport the data files for all the user-defined tablespaces.
5. Transport the export dump file to the target database.
6. Perform an import on the target database by using the full, network_link, and transportable_datafiles parameters.
7. Perform an import on the target database by using the full and transportable_datafiles parameters.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A.    1, 3, 5, 4, 2, and 7
B.    1, 2, 4, 6, 5, 3, and 7
C.    1, 2,4, and 7
D.    2, 4, 5, 6, and 7

Answer: A

QUESTION 217
You enable Flashback Data Archive for a table for which you want to track and save all transactions for four years. After some time, the requirement changes for keeping transactions from four to two years.

You execute the following command to change the requirement:
SQL> ALTER flashback archive fda1 MODIFY RETENSION 2 YEAR; What is the outcome?

A.    An error is returned because the retention period cannot be reduced.
B.    All historical data older than two years, if any, is purged from the flashback archive FDA1.
C.    All the flashback data archives are purged and the subsequently created flashback archives are maintained for two years.
D.    All historical data older than two years, if any, is archived to flashback logs and the flashback archive is set to new retention time.

Answer: B

QUESTION 218
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) workload and it needs to be up 24 x 7. You want to perform a complete database backup by using RMAN.

Identify the minimum requirement for accomplishing the task.

A.    An RMAN channel must be configured to device-type disk.
B.    The database must be configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
C.    Redo log groups must have at least two members each.
D.    All tablespaces in the database must be locally managed.

Answer: C

QUESTION 219
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) CDB1 with two pluggable databases (PDBs), PDB1 and PDB2. You execute the following commands on CBD$ROOT as the SYS user:

SQL> CREATE USER c##scott IDENTIFIED BY scottorcll;
SQL> GRANT CREATE SESSION TO c##scott user?

Which statement is true about the c##scott user?

A.    It is created in all the PDBs with the CREATE SESSION privilege.
B.    It is created in all the PDBs but has the CREATE SESSION privilege only in CDB$ROOT.
C.    It is created and has the CREATE SESSION privilege only in a PDB that is open.
D.    It is created only in CDB$ROOT and has the CREATE SESSION privilege.

Answer: C

QUESTION 220
Which two statements are true about roles in multitenant container databases (CDBs)?

A.    Local roles can be granted to local and common users.
B.    A common role can be granted only to a common user.
C.    A common user can create a local role by default in any pluggable database (PDB) that is plugged in to a CDB.
D.    A common role can be granted only system privileges.
E.    The root container can have both local and common roles.
F.    A local role can be assigned to a common role in a PDB.

Answer: AC

Reference https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/multitenant-manage-users-and-privileges-for-cdb-and-pdb-12cr1

QUESTION 221
Which three conditions must be met before you Virtual Private Catalog (VPC) can be created and used by an Administrator?

A.    A base recovery catalog must exist.
B.    The owner of the VPC cannot own recovery catalog.
C.    At least one target database should be registered in the recovery catalog.
D.    The REGISTER DATABASE privilege should be granted to the virtual catalog owner.
E.    The DBA role must be granted to the virtual catalog owner.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 222
Your database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. Complete database backups are performed daily at midnight. A user accidentally truncates an important table at 10 AM after the last backup. After that, a few important transactions are performed on the database.

Which two best methods for recovering the truncated table data?

A.    Table Point-in-Time Recovery
B.    Database Point-in-Time Recovery
C.    Tablespace Point-in-Time Recovery
D.    Flashback Database
E.    Flashback Transaction Backout

Answer: BD

Reference https://blogs.oracle.com/sql/how-to-recover-data-without-a-backup

QUESTION 223
You issue the RMAN command:

RMAN> BACKUP SECTION SIZE 300M TABLESPACE users;

Which statement is true about the execution of the command?

A.    The resulting backupset has backup pieces that cannot exceed 300 MB.
B.    RMAN uses multiplexing to perform the backup.
C.    RMAN always performs this type of backup in parallel.
D.    The backup succeeds only if the USERS tablespace is locally managed.
E.    The backup set size is limited to 300 MB.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmbckad.htm#BRADV89546

QUESTION 224
Which two statements are true about encrypted backups performed by using RMAN?

A.    Transparent encryption of backups uses an encryption wallet.
B.    A database uses the same encryption key for every encrypted backup.
C.    A password encryption of backups uses the password while creating and restoring backups.
D.    Image copy backups can be created by using password encryption.
E.    Encrypted backups can only be written to disk.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/backup.102/b14191/rcmbackp.htm#BRADV007

QUESTION 225
Your multitenant container database (CDB) CDB1 has two pluggable databases, PDB1 and PDB2. The local net service name CDB1 connects to the root database, and the service names PDB1 and PDB2 connect to the pluggable databases (PDBs), PDB1 and PDB2, respectively.

Examine the commands to change the value of the PDB modifiable initialization parameter:

$> sqlplus sys/[email protected] AS SYSDBA
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET optimizer_use_sql_plan_baselines=FALSE SCOPE=BOTH; SQL>CONN sys/[email protected] AS SYSDBA
SQL>ALTER SYSTEM SET optimizer_use_sql_plan_baselines= TRUE SCOPE = BOTH; SQL> CONN sys/oracle [email protected] AS SYSDBA
SQL.>ALTER SYSTEM SET optimizer_use_sql_plan_baseline=TRUE SCOPE=BOTH;

Which statement is true about the OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES parameter?

A.    It gives an error because it cannot be set for the root database.
B.    It is set to TRUE for the root database and the pluggable database PDB2, because values can be set for this parameter at the PDB level in a PDB.
C.    It is set to TRUE for the root database and all the PDBS, because the value set at the root level has higher precedence.
D.    It is set to TRUE for the root database and all the PDBS, but is effective only when the CDB is restarted and the PDBs are reopened.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 201
Which three statements are true about unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?

A.    A PDB must be in closed state before it can be unplugged.
B.    A PDB must have been opened at least once after creation.
C.    A PDB must be in MOUNT state before it can be unplugged.
D.    PDB data file are automatically removed from disk.
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QUESTION 191
Which three methods can be used to create a pluggable database (PDB) in an existing multitenant container database (CDB)?

A.    Use PDB$SEED for creating a PDB.
B.    Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug a non-CDB into an existing CDB.
C.    Clone the existing PDB.
D.    Use Enterprise Manager Database Express to create a PDB in an existing CDB.
E.    Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug a pre-Oracle 12c database into an existing CDB. Continue reading

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QUESTION 181
Examine the commands executed in CDB$ROOT of your multitenant container database (CDB) that has multiple pluggable databases (PDB): Continue reading

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QUESTION 315
What is pre-requisite to alter a role?

A.    You should be granted the DBA role.
B.    You should set the OS_ROLES parameter to true.
C.    You should be granted the role with the GRANT OPTION.
D.    You should have the ALTER ANY ROLE system privilege.

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QUESTION 273
SMD is a smallfile locally managed tablespace with manual segment space management.
The SH user receives the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
 
Which three actions can be taken to enable the user to insert data? (Choose three.)

A.    altering the data file associated with the SMD tablespace to grow automatically
B.    adding a data file to the SMD tablespace, provided the tablespace has not reached its maximum number of file
C.    changing segment space management for the SMD tablespace to automatic
D.    resizing the data file associated with the SMD tablespace to make it larger, provided all data files have not yet reached their maximum size
E.    increasing the space quota on the SMD tablespace for the SH user, provided the files have not yet reached their maximum size

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QUESTION 121
Given:

public class TestLoop {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int array[] = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4};
int key = 3;
for (int pos = 0; pos < array.length; ++pos) {
if (array[pos] == key) {
break;
}
}
System.out.print(“Found ” + key + “at ” + pos);
}
}

What is the result?

A.    Found 3 at 2
B.    Found 3 at 3
C.    Compilation fails
D.    An exception is thrown at runtime

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