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QUESTION 11
If a project sponsor wants to know the current status and progress of a project, which of the following is the BEST approach to find this information?

A.    The project sponsor should obtain the current status from team members, put it into a presentation, and present it to the project manager for review.
B.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, apply it to the baseline of the schedule, and run a report
C.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the project charter, project management plan, dashboard, and SOW; and then create a status report to provide to the project manager.
D.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the risk register, and provide the information to the project champion for review

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which documents does a vendor rely on to commit funding and resources to a project?

A.    SOW
B.    PO
C.    SU
D.    MOU

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A project coordinator logs potential events that can affect project constraints, and then records the results of brainstorm,TM of potential strategies.
Which of the following documents should the project coordinator use?

A.    Risk register
B.    Issue log
C.    Communication plan
D.    Status report

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how a project is related to a program?

A.    A program is a combination of multiple projects.
B.    A program contains an element of the project.
C.    A program is a part of a project.
D.    A program uses half of the project’s budget.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a key aspect of the Agile project management methodology?

A.    Test-driven
B.    Daily standup meetings
C.    Short project durations
D.    Defined list of requirements

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are examples of organizational change? (Choose two.).

A.    Relocation
B.    Scope
C.    Business process
D.    Schedule
E.    Risk event

Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
A vendor has accepted a proposed project from a customer.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be the first document created by the project manager?

A.    Project charter
B.    Project management plan
C.    Project statement of work
D.    Project schedule

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.),

A.    managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.
B.    contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.
C.    setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.
D.    outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects
E.    approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements

Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Which of the following describes risk mitigation?

A.    The transfer of the risk to another entity or project inside or outside the organization, along with associated costs
B.    The understanding of the risk with a detailed explanation of how the project intends to address the potential for occurrence
C.    The quantification of the risk in terms of how much the risk could potentially cost the project or parent organization
D.    The weighting or prioritization of the risk against all other identified risks within this project or others associated with it

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A project manager has noticed poor attendance at status meetings. Which of the following strategies should the project manager use to improve attendance? (Choose two.)

A.    Provide an agenda before the status meeting
B.    Adhere to an agenda and scheduled time
C.    Add non-project-related items to the agenda
D.    Add and discuss new agenda items throughout the meeting.
E.    Discard the action items at the conclusion of the meeting.

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 11
After pushing a security policy from Panorama to a PA-3020 firewall, the firewall administrator notices that traffic logs from the PA-3020 are not appearing in Panorama’s traffic logs. What could be the problem?

A.    A Server Profile has not been configured for logging to this Panorama device.
B.    Panorama is not licensed to receive logs from this particular firewall.
C.    The firewall is not licensed for logging to this Panorama device.
D.    None of the firewall’s policies have been assigned a Log Forwarding profile

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A critical US-CERT notification is published regarding a newly discovered botnet. The malware is very evasive and is not reliably detected by endpoint antivirus software. Furthermore, SSL is used to tunnel malicious traffic to command-and-control servers on the internet and SSL Forward Proxy Decryption is not enabled.
Which component once enabled on a perimeter firewall will allow the identification of existing infected hosts in an environment?

A.    Anti-Spyware profiles applied outbound security policies with DNS Query action set to sinkhole
B.    File Blocking profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert
C.    Vulnerability Protection profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to block
D.    Antivirus profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert

Answer: A
Explanation:
Starting with PAN-OS 6.0, DNS sinkhole is an action that can be enabled in Anti-Spyware profiles. A DNS sinkhole can be used to identify infected hosts on a protected network using DNS traffic in environments where the firewall can see the DNS query to a malicious URL.
The DNS sinkhole enables the Palo Alto Networks device to forge a response to a DNS query for a known malicious domain/URL and causes the malicious domain name to resolve to a definable IP address (fake IP) that is given to the client. If the client attempts to access the fake IP address and there is a security rule in place that blocks traffic to this IP, the information is recorded in the logs.
https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Configuration-Articles/How-to-Configure-DNS-Sinkhole/ta-p/58891

QUESTION 13
Which two statements are correct for the out-of-box configuration for Palo Alto Networks NGFWs? (Choose two)

A.    The devices are pre-configured with a virtual wire pair out the first two interfaces.
B.    The devices are licensed and ready for deployment.
C.    The management interface has an IP address of 192.168.1.1 and allows SSH and HTTPS connections.
D.    A default bidirectional rule is configured that allows Untrust zone traffic to go to the Trust zone.
E.     The interfaces are pingable.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://popravak.wordpress.com/2014/07/31/initial-setup-of-palo-alto-networks-next-generation-firewall/

QUESTION 14
A network security engineer is asked to perform a Return Merchandise Authorization (RMA) on a firewall
Which part of files needs to be imported back into the replacement firewall that is using Panorama?

A.    Device state and license files
B.    Configuration and serial number files
C.    Configuration and statistics files
D.    Configuration and Large Scale VPN (LSVPN) setups file

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A network engineer has revived a report of problems reaching 98.139.183.24 through vr1 on the firewall. The routing table on this firewall is extensive and complex.
Which CLI command will help identify the issue?

A.    test routing fib virtual-router vr1
B.    show routing route type static destination 98.139.183.24
C.    test routing fib-lookup ip 98.139.183.24 virtual-router vr1
D.    show routing interface

Answer: C
Explanation:
This document explains how to perform a fib lookup for a particular destination within a particular virtual router on a Palo Alto Networks firewall.
1. Select the desired virtual router from the list of virtual routers configured with the command:
> test routing fib-lookup virtual-router <value>
2. Specify a destination IP address:
> test routing fib-lookup virtual-router default ip <ip address>
https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Learning-Articles/How-to-Perform-FIB-Lookup-for-a-Particular-Destination/ta-p/52188

QUESTION 16
Which two mechanisms help prevent a spilt brain scenario an Active/Passive High Availability (HA) pair? (Choose two)

A.    Configure the management interface as HA3 Backup
B.    Configure Ethernet 1/1 as HA1 Backup
C.    Configure Ethernet 1/1 as HA2 Backup
D.    Configure the management interface as HA2 Backup
E.    Configure the management interface as HA1 Backup
F.    Configure ethernet1/1 as HA3 Backup

Answer: BE
Explanation:
E: For firewalls without dedicated HA ports, select two data interfaces for the HA2 link and the backup HA1 link. Then, use an Ethernet cable to connect these in-band HA interfaces across both firewalls.
Use the management port for the HA1 link and ensure that the management ports can connect to each other across your network.
B:
1. In Device > High Availability > General, edit the Control Link (HA1) section.
2. Select the interface that you have cabled for use as the HA1 link in the Port drop down menu. Set the IP address and netmask. Enter a Gateway IP address only if the HA1 interfaces are on separate subnets. Do not add a gateway if the devices are directly connected.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/60/pan-os/pan-os/high-availability/configure-active-passive-ha

QUESTION 17
What are three valid actions in a File Blocking Profile? (Choose three)

A.    Forward
B.    Block
C.    Alret
D.    Upload
E.    Reset-both
F.    Continue

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
You can configure a file blocking profile with the following actions:
Forward – When the specified file type is detected, the file is sent to WildFire for analysis. A log
is also generated in the data filtering log.
Block – When the specified file type is detected, the file is blocked and a customizable block
page is presented to the user. A log is also generated in the data filtering log.
Alert – When the specified file type is detected, a log is generated in the data filtering log.
Continue – When the specified file type is detected, a customizable response page is presented
to the user. The user can click through the page to download the file. A log is also generated in
the data filtering log. Because this type of forwarding action requires user interaction, it is only
applicable for web traffic.
Continue-and-forward – When the specified file type is detected, a customizable continuation
page is presented to the user. The user can click through the page to download the file. If the
user clicks through the continue page to download the file, the file is sent to WildFire for analysis.
A log is also generated in the data filtering log.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/61/pan-os/pan-os/policy/file-blocking-profiles.html

QUESTION 18
An Administrator is configuring an IPSec VPN toa Cisco ASA at the administrator’s home and experiencing issues completing the connection. The following is th output from the command:

181

What could be the cause of this problem?

A.    The public IP addresses do not match for both the Palo Alto Networks Firewall and the ASA.
B.    The Proxy IDs on the Palo Alto Networks Firewall do not match the settings on the ASA.
C.    The shared secrets do not match between the Palo Alto firewall and the ASA
D.    The deed peer detection settings do not match between the Palo Alto Networks Firewall and the ASA

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Proxy IDs could have been checked for mismatch.
References: https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Configuration-Articles/IPSec-Error-IKE-Phase-1-Negotiation-is-Failed-as-Initiator-Main/ta-p/59532

QUESTION 19
Which interface configuration will accept specific VLAN IDs?

A.    Tab Mode
B.    Subinterface
C.    Access Interface
D.    Trunk Interface

Answer: B
Explanation:
You can only assign a single VLAN to a subinterface, and not to the physical interface. Each subinterface must have a VLAN ID before it can pass traffic.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa72/configuration/guide/conf_gd/intrface.html

QUESTION 20
Palo Alto Networks maintains a dynamic database of malicious domains.
Which two Security Platform components use this database to prevent threats? (Choose two)

A.    Brute-force signatures
B.    BrightCloud Url Filtering
C.    PAN-DB URL Filtering
D.    DNS-based command-and-control signatures

Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: PAN-DB categorizes URLs based on their content at the domain, file and page level, and receives updates from WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment every 30 minutes to make sure that, when web content changes, so do categorizations. This continuous feedback loop enables you to keep pace with the rapidly changing nature of the web, automatically.
D: DNS is a very necessary and ubiquitous application, as such, it is a very commonly abused protocol for command-and-control and data exfiltration. This tech brief summarizes the DNS classification, inspection and protection capabilities supported by our next-generation security platform, which includes:
1.    Malformed DNS messages (symptomatic of vulnerability exploitation attack).
2.    DNS responses with suspicious composition (abused query types, DNS-based denial of service attacks).
3.    DNS queries for known malicious domains. Our ability to prevent threats from hiding within DNS
The passive DNS network feature allows you to opt-in to share anonymized DNS query and response data with our global passive DNS network. The data is continuously mined to discover malicious domains that are then added to the PAN-OS DNS signature set that is delivered daily, enabling timely detection of compromised hosts within the network and the disruption of command-and-control channels that rely on name resolution.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/products/secure-the-network/subscriptions/url-filtering-pandb
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/apps/pan/public/downloadResource?pagePath=/content/pan/en_US/resources/techbriefs/dns-protection

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QUESTION 11
Which two web filtering inspection modes inspect the full URL? (Choose two.)

A.    DNS-based.
B.    Proxy-based.
C.    Flow-based.
D.    URL-based.

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QUESTION 11
Which two features provide physical path resiliency from a Windows 2016 server to an iSCSI LUN on a 12-node ONTAP cluster? (Choose two.)

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QUESTION 11
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?

A.    Reservations
B.    Lease times
C.    Removing IPs from the active leases
D.    Configuring the DNS options

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QUESTION 11
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer working on a new solution, and you need to usea custom icon.

What should you create to add this icon to the solution?

A.    a reference to the icon in the project
B.    an Image folder, and then add the icon
C.    a tile item in the model
D.    a resource item in the model

Answer: D
Explanation:
Resources enable management of the pictures, icons, and other visual representations for elements thatare used within the user interface.

QUESTION 12
A junior programmer asks you to review an order of operator precedence so that a math operation evaluates appropriately.

Which list is ordered correctly?

A.    unary, multiplicative, additive, logical, relational
B.    shift, relational, additive, unary, logical
C.    unary, multiplicative, additive, relational, logical
D.    equality, multiplicative, additive, relational, unary

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer who is creatinga new module in a solution. Aspart of the solution, you create a new menu.

You need the menu to appear in the list of modules available on the navigation pane.

What should you do to achieve this goal?

A.    Create an extension of the MainMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.
B.    Create an extension of the NavPaneMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.
C.    Create an extension of the CommonMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.
D.    Create an extension of the StartPageMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are developing a solution to insert and update records in a table named Table1, and you need to ensure that you handle the possible exceptions. Table1 does not have any unique indexes that include the ID or the Description fields.

The table has the following structure:

141

What is the output of the X++ code?

A.    Max value
DDEerror
Data error
B.    Break
C.    Data error_RC
D.    Max value
DDEerror
Error has occurred

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer working on a solution that extends the

Commerce Runtime (CRT) to handle new requests for an app deployed to tablets and cell phones.

You are in the developer topology and need to troubleshoot an error and check for events.

Under which event log in Event Viewer should you look to see the events?

A.    Commerce-RetailServer
B.    Commerce-OnlineStore
C.    Commerce-LoggingProvider
D.    Commerce-ModernPos

Answer: D
Explanation:
Commerce-RetailServer?This log contains events that are logged by the Retail Server components.
Commerce-ModernPos?This log contains events that are logged byRetail Modern POS. These eventsinclude events from the TypeScript and C# (CRT) layer. Commerce-LoggingProvider?This log contains events that are loggedby all other Retail componentsthat aren’t included in the list earlier in this article.

QUESTION 16
You have built a package to deploy retail modifications into a source environment for multiple models.

What is a result of building this package?

A.    Build artifacts are removed from the previous build.
B.    The .NET module that contains the element is incorporated.
C.    Only recently changed objects are rebuilt.
D.    Only the elements for the current project are built.

Answer: A
Explanation:
“Copy and publish build artifacts” uploads the deployable package to VSTS artifacts location.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/perf-test/continuous-build-testautomation

QUESTION 17
You are working for a client in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You design and build acustom package, and upload it to the Asset library in Lifecycle Services (LCS).
You need to apply the custom package to the client’s Tier 2 environment for testing by generating a runbook.

Which two files are required to generate the runbook? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    the topology data file
B.    the development installation service model data file
C.    the hotfix installation information file
D.    the service model file

Answer: AD
Explanation:
Runbook?The deployment runbook is a series of steps that is generated and used to apply the
deployable package to the target environment. Some of the steps are automated, and some are manual.
AXUpdateInstaller enables these steps to be run one at a time and in the correct order. AXUpdateInstaller.exe generate -runbookid=[runbookID] -topologyfile= [topologyFile] -servicemodelfile=[serviceModelFile] -runbook Here is an explanation of the parameters that are used in this command:
[runbookID]?A parameter that is specified by the developer who applies the deployable package.
[topologyFile]?The path of the DefaultTopologyData.xml file. [serviceModelFile]?The path of the DefaultServiceModelData.xml file. [runbookFile]?The name of the runbook file to generate (for example, AOSRunbook.xml).

QUESTION 18
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer, and you are reviewing the code in a solution.

During the code review, you see the following:

using (var sr = new System.IO.StreamReader(_inputFilename))
{
var textFromFile = sr.ReadToEnd();
this.processFileDate(textFromFile);
}

Which two statements about the sr and textFromFile variables are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    The variables storing .Net Framework objects have to be declared using the var keyword.
B.    The var keyword indicates the variables can store values of any type.
C.    The variables are valid within the block of code in which they were declared.
D.    The var keyword infers the type of the variables from their initialization expression.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
You need to troubleshoot an issue by using the Async sync library.

Where should you go to access this library?

A.    Real Time Service
B.    Reatil Server
C.    Retail Modern POS
D.    Channel Database

Answer: C
Explanation:
Retail modern POS includes the Async library which downloads any available data packages and insertsthem into the offline database.

QUESTION 20
You have previously written a PurchOrderActivation class with the following logic:

class PurchOrderActivation
{
private static PurchOrderActivation construct()
{
return new PurchOrderActivation();
}

}

You need to instantiatePurchOrderActivationfrom a new class named PurchOrderActivationExtended, which extendsPurchOrderActivation.

What are two possible ways to instantiate thePurchOrderActivationclass in the initialize method of the PurchOrderActivationExtendedclass? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
public void initialize()
{
PurchOrderActivation purchOrderActivation =
PurchOrderActivation::construct();
}
}
B.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
public void initialize()
{
var purchOrderActivation = new PurchOrderActivation(); }
}
C.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
public void initialize()
{
var purchOrderActivation = PurchOrderActivation::construct(); }
}
D.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
public void initialize()
{
PurchOrderActivation purchOrderActivation = new PurchOrderActivation ();
}
}

Answer: BD

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QUESTION 11
You are setting up sales tax on sales order for you customer.
You need to define the setup so that it calculates as follows:

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QUESTION 11
You department manger wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer this month.
However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.
From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer present a complete solution.

A.    sub ledger
B.    customer
C.    payment schedule
D.    free text

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QUESTION 11
You create a workflow that automatically sends an email when a condition is met.
The staff reports that emails are not been sent as expected.
You need to correct the issue. What should you do?

A.    Export the workflow.
B.    Publish the workflow.
C.    Set the workflow to required.
D.    Activate the workflow.

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are implementing a new business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You specify a name and the primary intent for the BPF, and define the stages and conditions.
You need to configure the composition.
Which two options can you configure? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Dialogs
B.    Workflows
C.    Steps
D.    Actions

Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
You create a business rule for the Account entity.
The business rule must run when you import account records.
Which two conditions must be true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    The scope was set to Account.
B.    The scope was set to Entity.
C.    A business rule snapshot was successful.
D.    A business rule is active.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
You have a business process named Know Your Customer. Employees use this business process to capture key information about customers.
You must implement a business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365 that represents this business process.
You specify the name for the BPF as well as the stage names, entities, and stage category that the BPF will use.
You need to complete the BPF implementation.
Which three additional components can you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Step Required
B.    Check Conditions
C.    Wait Conditions
D.    Step Display Names
E.    Data Fields

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
You have an environment that includes Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Exchange Online.
Email messages between Microsoft Dynamics and Exchange are synchronizing correctly.
You need to ensure that appointments, contacts, and tasks are synchronized.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use server side synchronization.
B.    Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
C.    Connect Microsoft Dynamics 365 to POP3/SMTP servers.
D.    Set up the email router.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
You implement Microsoft Office 365 groups for a company.
You need to ensure that all members of a specific security role can see and use an Office 365 group.
Which privilege should you assign to the security role?

A.    ISV Extensions
B.    Execute Workflow Job
C.    Act on behalf of another user
D.    Browse Availability

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
You manage Microsoft Office 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a company. Some Office 365 users do not have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license.
You need to ensure that all users can see tasks that are associated with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 opportunity record. What should you implement?

A.    Microsoft OneNote integration
B.    Microsoft OneDrive integration
C.    Microsoft Share Point integration
D.    Microsoft Office 365 groups

Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You add a new entity named Parts to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to grant all users that have the Salesperson security role read access to the Parts entity.
Which tab of the Security Role page should you use?

A.    Business Management
B.    Missing Entities
C.    Custom Entities
D.    Customization

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Users need to be able to embed Microsoft Power Bl visuals into personal dashboards. What should you do?

A.    Enable server-based integration with Power Bl.
B.    Add Power Bl as a report category.
C.    Enable Power Bl visualization embedding.
D.    Grant users Power Bl reporting permissions.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You enable folder-level tracking functionality for all users. A user named User1 creates a folder named Dynamics 365 underneath her in box.
User1 moves emails into the Dynamics 365 folder. User1 reports that the emails are not being tracked.
You need to resolve the issue. What should you do?

A.    Ensure that the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook client is installed.
B.    Configure server-side synchronization for Microsoft Exchange.
C.    Ensure that Microsoft Exchange rules are created.
D.    Instruct the user to create a folder tracking rule.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit.

311

312

You have deployed the access control configuration to the distribution switch.

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?

A.    All hosts connected to the access switch require authentication to access the network.
B.    All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network after one host authenticates.
C.    All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network without authentication.
D.    Only the first host to authenticate will have access to the network, other hosts will be blocked.

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Click the Exhibit.

321

Referring to the exhibit, traffic from User-1 is being forwarded to Server-1 with DSCP values that must be written. You must maintain the rewritten DSCP values throughout the network.

Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1.
B.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1 and R4.
C.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1, R2, and R3.
D.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R4.

Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Click the Exhibit.

331

You are adding a Junos Fusion satellite device but one cascade port is not coming on line.

Referring to the exhibit, what would cause this problem?

A.    The satellite device is not an EX4300.
B.    The cascade ports need to be on the same line card.
C.    The FPC number must match the FPC connecting to the satellite device.
D.    Interface xe-8/2/1 is in a link down state.

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
In Layer 2 environment where 802.1X is deployed with its default parameters on EX Series, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    RADIUS authentication requests are sent from authenticator to the authentication server.
B.    DHCP traffic from supplicants is denied by default through the authenticator.
C.    RADIUS authentication requests are sent from the supplicant to the authentication server.
D.    DHCP traffic from supplicants is permitted by default through the authenticator.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 35
Click the Exhibit.

351

Your network is experiencing congestion across the link between R2 and R3. You must make changes to alleviate traffic congestion from R3 to R2.

Referring to the exhibit, which two commands would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    [edit protocol ospf]
[email protected]# set reference-bandwidth 10g
B.    [edit protocol ospf]
[email protected]# set reference-bandwidth 10g
C.    [edit protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 ]
[email protected]# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5
D.    [edit protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 ]
[email protected]# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5

Answer: BD

QUESTION 36
Which two statements are correct about using LLDP on junos devices? (Choose two)

A.    LLDP operates on layer 2 and layer 3 interfaces
B.    LLDP can interoperate with the cisco discovery protocol CDP
C.    LLDP is enabled on all devices by default
D.    LLDP operates on layer 2 interfaces

Answer: AC

QUESTION 37
You have certainly implemented the configuration shown in the exhibit. After committing these changes, the community devices connected to AS-1 are not able to communicate with the appropriate community devices connected to AS-2.
What must be done to allow these community devices to communicate?

A.    You must configure an isolation VLAN ID Under the pvlan-200 on the AS2
B.    switch You must configure the ge-0/0/10 interface on AS1 AS THE VPLAN on both switches
C.    You must configure an isolation VLAN ID under the VLAN 200 ON both switches
D.    You must configure the ge-0/012 interface on both switches as P VLAN trunks

Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which two statements is true regarding the next hop attribute? (Choose two)

A.    it is not changed when sent across EBGP sessions
B.    it is changed to self for IBGP routes learned from EBGP
C.    it is not changed for IGBP routes learned from EBGP
D.    it is Changed by default when sent across EBGP sessions

Answer: CD

QUESTION 39
Your enterprise network is providing layer 2 connectivity between remote-sites using Q-in- Q tunneling. A customer wants to ensure their connection through your network is also participating in their spanning free topology. In this scenario, which solution must be used?

A.    you must configure the Q in Q tunnel to use L2PT to tunnel STP packets
B.    you must configure the same isolation ID on both sides of the tunnel
C.    you must configure spanning tree on the interfaces connected to the customers sites
D.    you must configure spanning tree to tunnel packets

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
You want to deploy MSTP with multiple regions. Each region should have a unique root bridge to accommodate a set of VLANs. Which three configuration elements must watch on switches participating in this deployment scenario? (Choose three)

A.    MSTI toVLAN mapping
B.    revision level
C.    CST BPDU parameters
D.    configuration name
E.    bridge priority

Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 11
A security analyst is adding input to the incident response communication plan.
A company officer has suggested that if a data breach occurs, only affected parties should be notified to keep an incident from becoming a media headline.
Which of the following should the analyst recommend to the company officer?

A.    The first responder should contact law enforcement upon confirmation of a security incident in order for a forensics team to preserve chain of custody.
B.    Guidance from laws and regulations should be considered when deciding who must be notified in order to avoid fines and judgements from non-compliance.
C.    An externally hosted website should be prepared in advance to ensure that when an incident occurs victims have timely access to notifications from a non-compromised recourse.
D.    The HR department should have information security personnel who are involved in the investigation of the incident sign non-disclosure agreements so the company cannot be held liable for customer data that might be viewed during an investigation. Continue reading

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QUESTION 11
Which one of the following factors is NOT one on which Authentication is based?

A.    Type 1 Something you know, such as a PIN or password
B.    Type 2 Something you have, such as an ATM card or smart card
C.    Type 3 Something you are (based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits), such as a fingerprint or retina scan
D.    Type 4 Something you are, such as a system administrator or security administrator

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