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QUESTION 41
Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224?

A.    192.168.2.63
B.    192.168.2.62
C.    192.168.2.61
D.    192.168.2.60
E.    192.168.2.32 Continue reading

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QUESTION 31
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

A.    There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.    A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.    Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.    In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network
media before transmitting.
E.    The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet–typically 10BaseT–is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps–at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

QUESTION 32
Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

A.    show ip route
B.    show interfaces
C.    show s0/0 status
D.    debug s0/0
E.    show run
F.    show version

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

A.    172.16.0.0
B.    172.16.128.0
C.    172.16.156.0
D.    172.16.159.0
E.    172.16.159.128
F.    172.16.192.0

Answer: C
Explanation:
Converting to binary format it comes to
11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000 or
255.255.252.0
Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.

QUESTION 34
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

A.    192.168.4.61
B.    192.168.4.63
C.    192.168.4.67
D.    192.168.4.125
E.    192.168.4.128
F.    192.168.4.132

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others lie beyond it.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1.
Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

351

A.    192.168.1.31
B.    192.168.1.64
C.    192.168.1.127
D.    192.168.1.190
E.    192.168.1.192

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

A.    192.168.23.0
B.    192.168.23.32
C.    192.168.23.48
D.    192.168.23.56
E.    192.168.23.60

Answer: C
Explanation:
convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet, that subnet’s first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on above steps the answer is option C.

QUESTION 37
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

A.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C.    Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D.    Assign the addresses statically on each node.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than use dynamic protocol as it is easy to operate and manage.

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown.
What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

381

A.    255.255.255.192
B.    255.255.255.224
C.    255.255.255.240
D.    255.255.255.248
E.    255.255.255.252

Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A.    The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B.    The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C.    The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D.    The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E.    The network is not subnetted.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254

QUESTION 40
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8
E.    252
F.    254

Answer: B
Explanation:
/30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

211

A.    The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B.    The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C.    The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D.    The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E.    The frame will be forwarded out fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F.    The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.

QUESTION 22
On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor?

A.    RTP
B.    TCP
C.    CDP
D.    UDP

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Cisco Unified IP Phone uses CDP to communicate information such as auxiliary VLAN ID, per port power management details, and Quality of Service (QoS) configuration information with the Cisco Catalyst switch.

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A through router RT-A?

231
A.    VLAN 1 on RT-A
B.    IP routing on SW-A
C.    default gateway on SW-A
D.    crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A

Answer: C
Explanation:
In order for the switch to reach networks that are not local, such as networks attached to different interfaces of the router, it will need to set its default gateway to be the IP address of the attached router.

QUESTION 24
A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?

A.    drop the frame
B.    forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
C.    forward it out of all ports
D.    store it until it learns the correct port

Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding this concept is prime for understanding that when switch receives the data frame from the host not having the MAC address already in the MAC table, it will add the MAC address to the source port on the MAC address table and sends the data frame. If the switch already has the MAC address in it’s table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in it’s MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.

QUESTION 25
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?

A.    application
B.    transport
C.    network
D.    physical
E.    data link

Answer: E
Explanation:
CDP is a device discovery protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco- manufactured devices (routers, bridges, access servers, and switches) and allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices. With CDP, network management applications can learn the device type and the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent address of neighboring devices running lower-layer, transparent protocols.

QUESTION 26
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)

A.    increases the number of collision domains
B.    decreases the number of collision domains
C.    implements VLAN
D.    decreases the number of broadcast domains
E.    uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.

QUESTION 27
Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface? (Choose two.)

A.    router#show version
B.    router#show ip interface
C.    router#show protocols
D.    router#show controllers
E.    router#show running-config

Answer: BC

QUESTION 28
Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)

A.    layer 3 support
B.    port security
C.    redundant components
D.    VLANs
E.    PoE

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The primary function of an access-layer is to provide network access to the end user.
The hardware and software attributes of the access layer that support high availability include security services for additional security against unauthorized access to the network through the use of tools such as 802.1x, port security, DHCP snooping, Dynamic ARP Inspection, and IP Source Guard.

QUESTION 29
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?

291

A.    drop the frame
B.    send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C.    return the frame to Host B
D.    send an ARP request for Host C
E.    send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F.    record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C

Answer: B

QUESTION 30
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?

A.    provides local hosts with a default gateway address
B.    allows remote management of the switch
C.    allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D.    ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other

Answer: B
Explanation:
Switch is a layer 2 device and doesn’t use network layer for packet forwarding. The IP address may be used only for administrative purposes such as Telnet access or for network management purposes.

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QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

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QUESTION 346
An administrator issues the show ip interface s0/0 command and the output displays that interface Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up.
What does “line protocol is up” specifically indicate about the interface?

A.    The cable is attached properly.
B.    CDP has discovered the connected device.
C.    Keepalives are being received on the interface.
D.    A carrier detect signal has been received from the connected device.
E.    IP is correctly configured on the interface.

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QUESTION 331
Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ?

A.    interface
B.    virtual IP address
C.    priority
D.    router ID

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QUESTION 316
Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Choose three.)

A.    ARP attacks
B.    brute force attacks
C.    spoofing attacks
D.    DDOS attacks
E.    VLAN hopping
F.    botnet attacks

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QUESTION 301
Which statement about 6to4 tunneling is true?

A.    One tunnel endpoint must be configured with IPv4 only
B.    It establishes a point-to-point tunnel
C.    Both tunnel endpoints must be configured with IPv4 only
D.    Both tunnel endpoints must support IPv4 and IPv6

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QUESTION 281
Hotspot Question – RIPv2 Troubleshooting II
Examine the DHCP configuration between R2 and R3; R2 is configured as the DHCP server and R3 as the client. What is the reason R3 is not receiving the IP address via DHCP?

A.    On R2. The network statement In the DHCP pool configuration is incorrectly configured.
B.    On R3. DHCP is not enabled on the interface that is connected to R2.
C.    On R2, the interface that is connected to R3 is in shutdown condition.
D.    On R3, the interface that is connected to R2 is in shutdown condition.

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QUESTION 261
Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?

A.    Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default
B.    Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default
C.    Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.
D.    The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons

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QUESTION 241
Which statement about static routes is true?

A.    The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions.
B.    A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address.
C.    The subnet mask is 255.255 255.0 by default
D.    The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.

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QUESTION 221
From where does a small network get its IP network address?

A.    Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
B.    Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
C.    Internet Service Provider (ISP)
D.    Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)

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