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QUESTION 51
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
The database contains a Product table created by using the following definition:

511

You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the Product table.
What should you do?

A.    Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B.    Implement Unicode Compression.
C.    Implement row-level compression.
D.    Implement page-level compression.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
A: Only a single index is used.
B: Unicode compression supports the fixed-length nchar(n) and nvarchar(n) data types.
C: Row-level compression does not affect VARCHAR och CHAR columns.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/data-compression
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/page-compression-implementation
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/row-compression-implementation

QUESTION 52
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
After a routine shutdown, the drive that contains tempdb fails.
You need to be able to start the SQL Server.
What should you do?

A.    Modify tempdb location in startup parameters.
B.    Start SQL Server in minimal configuration mode.
C.    Start SQL Server in single-user mode.
D.    Configure SQL Server to bypass Windows application logging.

Answer: B
Explanation:
If you have configuration problems that prevent the server from starting, you can start an instance of Microsoft SQL Server by using the minimal configuration startup option.
When you start an instance of SQL Server in minimal configuration mode, note the following:
Only a single user can connect, and the CHECKPOINT process is not executed.
Remote access and read-ahead are disabled.
Startup stored procedures do not run.
tempdb is configured at the smallest possible size.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/configure-windows/start-sql-server-with-minimal-configuration

QUESTION 53
You administer a single server that contains a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 default instance.
You plan to install a new application that requires the deployment of a database on the server. The application login requires sysadmin permissions.
You need to ensure that the application login is unable to access other production databases.
What should you do?

A.    Use the SQL Server default instance and configure an affinity mask.
B.    Install a new named SQL Server instance on the server.
C.    Use the SQL Server default instance and enable Contained Databases.
D.    Install a new default SQL Server instance on the server.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/sql-server/install/work-with-multiple-versions-and-instances-of-sql-server

QUESTION 54
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Enterprise Edition server that uses 64 cores.
You discover performance issues when large amounts of data are written to tables under heavy system load.
You need to limit the number of cores that handle I/O.
What should you configure?

A.    Processor affinity
B.    Lightweight pooling
C.    Max worker threads
D.    I/O affinity

Answer: D
Explanation:
The affinity Input-Output (I/O) mask Server Configuration Option.
To carry out multitasking, Microsoft Windows 2000 and Windows Server 2003 sometimes move process threads among different processors. Although efficient from an operating system point of view, this activity can reduce Microsoft SQL Server performance under heavy system loads, as each processor cache is repeatedly reloaded with data. Assigning processors to specific threads can improve performance under these conditions by eliminating processor reloads; such an association between a thread and a processor is called processor affinity.
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189629.aspx

QUESTION 55
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that your backup will continue if any invalid checksum is encountered.
Which backup option should you use?

A.    STANDBY
B.    Differential
C.    FULL
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    BULK_LOGGED
F.    CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR
G.    SIMPLE
H.    DBO_ONLY
I.    COPY_ONLY
J.    SKIP
K.    RESTART
L.    Transaction log
M.    NO_CHECKSUM
N.    NORECOVERY

Answer: F
Explanation:
The CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR option, of the Transact-SQL BACKUP command, instructs BACKUP to continue despite encountering errors such as invalid checksums or torn pages.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/backup-transact-sql

QUESTION 56
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
On Wednesday at 10:00 hours, the development team requests you to refresh the database on a development server by using the most recent version.
You need to perform a full database backup that will be restored on the development server.
Which backup option should you use?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: L
Explanation:
COPY_ONLY specifies that the backup is a copy-only backup, which does not affect the normal sequence of backups. A copy-only backup is created independently of your regularly scheduled, conventional backups. A copy-only backup does not affect your overall backup and restore procedures for the database.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/backup-transact-sql

QUESTION 57
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that the minimum amount of data is lost.
Which recovery model should the database use?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: B
Explanation:
The full recovery model requires log backups. No work is lost due to a lost or damaged data file. Can recover to a specific point in time, assuming that your backups are complete up to that point in time.
Incorrect Answers:
F: The bulk logged recovery model can recover to the end of any backup. Point-in-time recovery is not supported.
M: The simple recovery model can recover only to the end of a backup.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/recovery-models-sql-server

QUESTION 58
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that the backup size is as small as possible.
Which backup should you perform every two hours?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: J
Explanation:
Minimally, you must have created at least one full backup before you can create any log backups. After that, the transaction log can be backed up at any time unless the log is already being backed up.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/transaction-log-backups-sql-server

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QUESTION 81
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database named Orders.
Users report that during peak usage periods, certain operations are taking more time than expected.
Your initial analysis suggests that blocking is the cause.
You need to gather more data to be able to determine which processes are being blocked and to identify the root cause.
What should you do?

A.    Start a trace using SQL Server Profiler to catch the Lock: Deadlock event.
B.    Use sp_configure to set the blocked process threshold. Start a trace using SQL Server Profiler to catch the Blocked Process Report event.
C.    Schedule a SQL Agent job to run every 60 seconds and insert the results of executing the sys.dm_os_wait_stats DMV into a table.
D.    Use System Monitor to catch the Lock Waits/sec event.

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QUESTION 51
The New-CIPolicy cmdlet creates a Code Integrity policy as an .xml file. If you do NOT supply either driver files or rules what will happen?

A.    The cmdlet performs a system scan
B.    An exception/warning is shown because either one is required
C.    Nothing
D.    The cmdlet searches the Code Integrity Audit log for drivers

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QUESTION 121
You deploy two servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You install the Failovers Clustering feature on both servers.
You need to create a workgroup cluster.
What should you do?

A.    Create matching local administrative accounts on both of the servers. Assign the same primary DNS suffix to both of the servers. Run the New-Cluster cmdlet and specify an administrative access point of None.
B.    Configure both of the server to be in a workgroup named Workgroup. Configure the Cluster Service to log on as Network Service. Run the New-Cluster cmdlet and specify an administrative access point of DNS.
C.    Create matching local administrative accounts on both of the servers. Assign the same primary DNS suffix to both of the servers. Run the New-Cluster cmdlet and specify an administrative access point of DNS.
D.    Configure both of the server to be in a workgroup named Workgroup. Configure the Cluster Service to log on as Network Service. Run the New-Cluster cmdlet and specify an administrative access point of None. Continue reading

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QUESTION 41
If you chose the Group Policy based provisioning method for IPAM, you must also provide a GPO name prefix in the provisioning wizard. After providing a GPO name prefix, the wizard will display the GPO names that must be created in domains that will be managed by IPAM.
How many GPO’s are created from the following PowerShell command?

Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioning -Domain contoso.com -GpoPrefixName IPAM1-DelegatedGpoUser user1 -IpamServerFqdn ipam1.contoso.com

A.    1
B.    3
C.    2
D.    4

Answer: B
Explanation:
This example creates three GPOs (IPAM1_DHCP, IPAM1_DNS, IPAM1_DC_NPS) and links them to the contoso.com domain. These GPOs enable access for the server ipam1.contoso.com using the domain administrator account user1. Note: In this example, the hostname of the IPAM server is used as a GPO prefix, however this is not required.

QUESTION 42
Complete the missing term:
The SLB ______ processes inbound network traffic and maps VIPs to DIPs, then forwards the traffic to the correct DIP.

A.    Host Agent
B.    Northbound API
C.    SCVMM
D.    MUX

Answer: D
Explanation:
The SLB MUX processes inbound network traffic and maps VIPs to DIPs, then forwards the traffic to the correct DIP. Each MUX also uses BGP to publish VIP routes to edge routers. BGP Keep Alive notifies MUXes when a MUX fails, which allows active MUXes to redistribute the load in case of a MUX failure – essentially providing load balancing for the load balancers.

QUESTION 43
Which of the following is NOT a recognized private IP address ranges are specified by Internet Request for Comments (RFC) 1918?

A.    10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
B.    192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255
C.    172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
D.    128.24.0.0 – 128.24.255.255

Answer: D

QUESTION 44
Because the network ID bits must always be chosen in a contiguous fashion from the high order bits, a shorthand way of expressing a subnet mask is to denote the number of bits that define the network ID as a network prefix using the network prefix notation: /<# of bits>.
What is the Network Prefix for Class B?

A.    /8
B.    /64
C.    /24
D.    /16

Answer: D

QUESTION 45
This question is regarding DNS Logging and Diagnosis.
Which event is logged for a Recursive query timeout?

A.    analytic event
B.    audit event

Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Software Defined Networking (SDN) provides a method to centrally configure and manage physical and virtual network devices such as routers, switches, and gateways in your datacenter. Virtual network elements such as Hyper-V Virtual Switch, Hyper-V Network Virtualization, and RAS Gateway are designed to be integral elements of your SDN infrastructure.
Software defined networking provides which of the following capabilities?

A.    The ability to abstract your applications and workloads from the underlying physical network, which is accomplished by virtualizing the network.
B.    The ability to implement network policies in a consistent manner at scale, even as you deploy new workloads or move workloads across virtual or physical networks.
C.    The ability to centrally define and control policies that govern both physical and virtual networks, including traffic flow between these two network types.
D.    All of these

Answer: D

QUESTION 47
With client reservations, you can reserve an IP address for permanent use by a DHCP client.
Typically, you will need to do this if the client uses an IP address that was assigned using another method for TCP/IP configuration.
If you are reserving an IP address for a new client, or an address that is different from its current one, you should verify that the address has not already been leased by the DHCP server. Reserving an IP address in a scope does not automatically force a client currently using that address to stop using it.
Which ipconfig command would you use if the address is already in use?

A.    ipconfig /flushdns
B.    ipconfig /release
C.    ipconfig /registerdns
D.    ipconfig /renew

Answer: B
Explanation:
If the address is already in use, the client using the address must first release it by issuing a DHCP release message (DHCPRELEASE).
You can do this by typing ipconfig /release at the command prompt of a client computer running Windows XP or Windows Vista.
Reserving an IP address at the DHCP server also does not force the new client for which the reservation is made to immediately move to that address. In this case, too, the client must first issue a DHCP request message (DHCPREQUEST). You can do this by typing ipconfig /renew at the command prompt of a client computer.

QUESTION 48
The DNS Server service provides several types of zones. Which zone helps to keep delegated zone information current, improve name resolution and simplify DNS administration, but is not an alternative for enhancing redundancy and load sharing?

A.    secondary
B.    stub
C.    none of these
D.    primary

Answer: B
Explanation:
When a zone that this DNS server hosts is a stub zone, this DNS server is a source only for information about the authoritative name servers for this zone. The zone at this server must be obtained from another DNS server that hosts the zone. This DNS server must have network access to the remote DNS server to copy the authoritative name server information about the zone.
When a DNS server loads a stub zone, such as widgets.thetoycompany.com, it queries the master servers, which can be in different locations, for the necessary resource records of the authoritative servers for the zone widgets.thetoycompany.com. The list of master servers may contain a single server or multiple servers, and it can be changed anytime.

QUESTION 49
The following example displays DNS query results that are performed from a DNS client computer using the Resolve-DnsName cmdlet.

resolve-dnsname -name finance.secure.contoso.com -type A -server dns1.contoso.com

You want to include the DO bit in a DNS query, to make the client is DNSSEC-aware, so that it is OK for the DNS server to return DNSSEC data in a response.
What extra parameter should you use?

A.    DnssecCd
B.    DnssecOk
C.    LlmnrOnly
D.    DnsOnly

Answer: B
Explanation:
When DO=1, the client indicates that it is able to receive DNSSEC data if available. Because the secure.contoso.com zone is signed, an RRSIG resource record was included with the DNS response when DO=1.

QUESTION 50
Which mode is being described below?
Deploy the RAS Gateway as an edge VPN server, an edge DirectAccess server, or both simultaneously.
In this configuration, RAS Gateway provides remote employees with connectivity to your network by using either VPN or DirectAccess connections.

A.    Multitenant mode
B.    Single tenant mode

Answer: B

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QUESTION 41
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, white others might not have a correct solution.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest.
You install Windows Server 2016 on 10 virtual machines.
You need to deploy the Web Server (IIS) server role identically to the virtual machines.
Solution: From a Group policy object (GPO), you create an application control policy, and then you apply the policy to the virtual machines.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
An application control policy is used to allow/disallow certain programs from running on a client, not for configuring roles.

QUESTION 42
You have a server named Server 1 thai runs Windows Server 2016.
Server 1 has Internet connectivity. You have a Nano Server image.
You need to download and save a Nano Server package in the Nano Server image.
The package is NOT included in the Windows Server 2016 installation media.
Which two cmdlets should you run on Server1?

A.    Set-PaekageSource
B.    Install-PackageProvider
C.    Add-AppxProvisioncdPackage
D.    Save-NanoServer
E.    Package Add WindowsPackage

Answer: BD

QUESTION 43
You have four servers named Server 1, Server2, Server3 and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016. Each server has a single 4-TB SATA hard disk.
To each server, you attach a new 4 TB SATA hard disk.
You need to create a new storage cluster that uses Storage Spaces Direct.
The storage pool must contain all of the new disks.
Which command should you run before you enable Storage Space Direct?

A.    Add-ClusterSharedVolume -Name “Disk 1” -Cluster Cluster 1
B.    New-Cluster -Name Clusterl -Node ‘Server1’, Server2, Server3 , Server4 -NoStorage
C.    Get-ClusterAvailableDisk -Cluster Clusterl | Add-ClusterDisk
D.    New-ClustcrStorageEnclosure -id 1 -name Cluster 1 -type jbod -ConnectionString Serverl,Server2.Server3,Server4

Answer: B
Explanation:
Before enabling StorageSpacesDirect, you must create a new cluster using the New-Cluster command.

QUESTION 44
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1 that uses a single VHDX file.
VM1 is configured shown in the following table.

441

You plan to use VM1 as a virtual Machine Template to deploy shielded virtual machines.
You need to ensure that VM1 can be used to deploy shielded virtual machines.
What should you run?

A.    the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B.    the Diskpart command
C.    the Set-VHD cmdlet
D.    the Set-VM cmdlet
E.    the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F.    the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet
G.    the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H.    the Optimize-VHD cmdlet

Answer: B

QUESTION 45
In this section, you’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration

451

You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients.
Solution From a Group Policy object (GPO) in tne domain, you modify the Network List Manager Policies.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

QUESTION 46
In this section, you’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.

461

You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients.
Solution From Windows PowerShell on Setver1, you run the Add-DnsServerTrustAnchor cmdtel.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

QUESTION 47
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, white others might not have a correct solution.

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a line-of- business application named App1.
App1 has a memory leak that occasionally causes the application to consume an excessive amount of memory.
You need to log an event in the Application event log whenever App1 consume more than 4 GB of memory.
Solution: You create a performance counter data collector.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
To log a memory event based on a data collector, you will use the trace type of collector.
Counter type is used to record data for a period of time.

QUESTION 48
You have an Active Director domain named Contoso.com. The domain contains servers named Server 1, Server2 and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Hyper V cluster named Cluster1.
You add a Hyper V Replica Broker role named Broker 1 to Cluster 1.
Server3 is a Hyper-V server. A virtual machine named VM1 runs on Server3.
Live Migration is enabled on all three servers and it is configured to use Kerberos authentication only.
You need to ensure that you can perform the migration of VM1 to Server2.
What should you do?

A.    Modify the Storage Migration settings on Server3
B.    Modify the Cluster Permissions for Cluster1.
C.    Add the Server3 computer account to the Replicator group on Server1 and Server2.
D.    Modify the Delegation settings for the Server3 computer account.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 41
You have a computer named Computer1.
You deploy an image of Windows 10 to Computer1.
You start Computer1 in audit mode, and then you install several device drivers.
You need to capture an image of Computer1.
Which tool should you use?

A.    Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM)
B.    dism.exe
C.    Express Deployment Tool (EDT) for Windows 10
D.    scanstate.exe Continue reading

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QUESTION 41
Hotspot Question
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. In contoso.com, you create an organizational unit (OU) named 0U1.
You need to use a provisioning package to perform the following:

– Configure the computer names as”;Statio”;, followed by a random three-digit number.
– Join the computers to contoso.com, and then create an account for the computers in 0U1.

How should you configure the provisioning package? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Continue reading

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QUESTION 31
You are an IT consultant for small and mid-sized business.
One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before implementing any changes, the client wants to ensure that the laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards.
You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards.
What should you do?

A.    Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version 1.2 or greater.
B.    Ensure that BitLocker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C.    Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D.    Ensure that the laptops and tablets are running Windows 10 Enterprise edition.

Answer: A
Explanation:
A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version 1.2 or greater is required to support Virtual Smart Cards.
Virtual smart card technology from Microsoft offers comparable security benefits to physical smart cards by using two-factor authentication. Virtual smart cards emulate the functionality of physical smart cards, but they use the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip that is available on computers in many organizations, rather than requiring the use of a separate physical smart card and reader. Virtual smart cards are created in the TPM, where the keys that are used for authentication are stored in cryptographically secured hardware.
Incorrect Answers:
B: BitLocker Drive Encryption does not need to be enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets to support Virtual Smart Cards.
C: The ability to read a physical smart card does not ensure support for Virtual Smart Cards.
D: Windows 10 Enterprise edition is not a requirement for Virtual Smart Cards; other versions of Windows 10 (and Windows 8) can use Virtual Smart Cards.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-GB/library/dn593708.aspx

QUESTION 32
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Contoso.com is synchronized to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory.
You have a Microsoft Intune subscription.
Your company plans to implement a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy.
You will provide users with access to corporate data from their personal iOS devices.
You need to ensure that you can manage the personal iOS devices.
What should you do first?

A.    Install the Company Portal app from the Apple App Store.
B.    Create a device enrollment manager account.
C.    Set a DNS alias for the enrollment server address.
D.    Configure the Intune Service to Service Connector for Hosted Exchange.
E.    Enroll for an Apple Push Notification (APN) certificate.

Answer: E
Explanation:
An Apple Push Notification service (APNs) certificate must first be imported from Apple so that you can manage iOS devices. The certificate allows Intune to manage iOS devices and institutes an accredited and encrypted IP connection with the mobile device management authority services.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Users can only install the Company Portal app after they have been added as Intune users, which require the Apple Push Notification (APN) certificate to be in place.
B: The device enrollment manager account is a special Intune account that has permission to enroll more than five corporate-owned devices. It is not used for BYOD.
C: The Set a DNS alias for the enrollment server address setting is an optional setting for enrolling Windows devices.
D: The Configure Intune service to service connector for hosted Exchange setting is used to connect Microsoft Intune and hosted Exchange without an on-premises infrastructure.
https://technet.microsoft.com/library/dn408185.aspx
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn764961.aspx
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/mt346003.aspx
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn646988.aspx

QUESTION 33
You manage Microsoft Intune for a company named Contoso. Intune client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You notice that there are 25 mandatory updates listed in the Intune administration console.
You need to prevent users from receiving prompts to restart Windows following the installation of mandatory updates.
Which policy template should you use?

A.    Microsoft Intune Agent Settings
B.    Windows Configuration Policy
C.    Microsoft Intune Center Settings
D.    Windows Custom Policy (Windows 10 and Windows 10 Mobile)

Answer: A
Explanation:
To configure the Prompt user to restart Windows during Intune client agent mandatory updates update policy setting you have to configure the Microsoft Intune Agent Settings policy. Setting the Prompt user to restart Windows during Intune client agent mandatory updates setting to No would prevent users from receiving prompts to restart Windows following the installation of mandatory updates.
Incorrect Answers:
B: You make use of the Microsoft Intune Windows general configuration policy to configure settings for enrolled devices, but not the policy setting in question.
C: The Microsoft Intune Center allows users to get applications from the company portal, check for updates, manage Microsoft Intune Endpoint Protection, and request remote assistance. It does not allow users to configure settings to prevent users from receiving prompts to restart Windows following the installation of mandatory updates
D: You can make use of the Microsoft Intune custom configuration policy for Windows 10 and Windows 10 Mobile to deploy OMA-URI (Open Mobile Alliance Uniform Resource Identifier) settings.
http://blogs.technet.com/b/windowsintune/archive/2013/01/09/policy-settings-for-mandatory-updates.aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn646989.aspx

QUESTION 34
Drag and Drop Question
You manage Microsoft Intune for a company named Contoso.
You have 200 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are Intune clients.
You need to configure software updates for the clients.
Which policy template should you use to configure each software updates setting? To answer, drag the appropriate policy templates to the correct settings. Each policy template may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

341

Answer:

342

Explanation:
You must make use of the Microsoft Intune Windows general configuration policy to configure settings for enrolled devices. The system settings that can be configured using this policy include the following:
– Require automatic updates.
– Require automatic updates – Minimum classification of updates to install automatically.
– User Account Control.
– Allow diagnostic data submission.

To configure the Allow immediate installation of updates that do not interrupt Windows update policy setting you have to configure and deploy a Microsoft Intune Agent Settings policy.
Incorrect Answers:
You can make use of the Microsoft Intune custom configuration policy for Windows 10 and Windows 10 Mobile to deploy OMA-URI (Open Mobile Alliance Uniform Resource Identifier) settings, which can be used to control features on Windows 10 and Windows 10 Mobile devices.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn646968.aspx
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/mt147409.aspx

QUESTION 35
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1).
You have a Microsoft Intune subscription that is synchronized to contoso.com by using the Microsoft Azure Active Directory Synchronization Tool (DirSync.)
You need to ensure that you can use Configuration Manager to manage the devices that are registered to your Microsoft Intune subscription.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a part of the solution.

A.    In Microsoft Intune, create a new device enrollment manager account.
B.    Install and configure Azure Active Directory Synchronization Services (AAD Sync.)
C.    In Microsoft Intune, configure an Exchange Connector.
D.    In Configuration Manager, configure the Microsoft Intune Connector role.
E.    In Configuration Manager, create the Microsoft Intune subscription.

Answer: DE
Explanation:
To allow Configuration Manager to manage mobile devices in the same context as other devices, it requires you to create a Windows Intune subscription and synchronize user accounts from Active Directory to Microsoft Online. to achieve that, you are required to complete the following tasks:
Sign up for a Windows Intune organizational account
Add a public company domain and CNAME DNS entry
Verify users have public domain User Principal Names (UPNs)
If you plan to use single sign-on, deploy and configure Active Directory Federated Services
(ADFS)
Deploy and Configure Active Directory Synchronization
Reset users Microsoft Online password – If not using ADFS*
Configure Configuration Manager for mobile device management
Create the Windows Intune Subscription in the Configuration Manager console
Add the Windows Intune Connector Site System role
Verify that Configuration Manager successfully connects to Windows Intune

http://blogs.technet.com/b/configmgrteam/archive/2013/03/20/configuring-configuration-manager-sp1-to-manage-mobile-devices-using-windows-intune.aspx

QUESTION 36
You purchase a new Windows 10 Enterprise desktop computer. You have four external USB hard drives.
You want to create a single volume by using the four USB drives.
You want the volume to be expandable, portable and resilient in the event of failure of an individual USB hard drive.
You need to create the required volume.
What should you do?

A.    From Control Panel, create a new Storage Space across 4 USB hard drives.
Set resiliency type to Three-way mirror.
B.    From Control Panel, create a new Storage Space across 4 USB hard drives.
Set resiliency type to Parity.
C.    From Disk Management, create a new spanned volume.
D.    From Disk Management, create a new striped volume.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Storage Spaces can combine multiple hard drives into a single virtual drive. To create a storage space, you’ll have to connect two or more additional internal or external drives to your computer to create a storage pool. You can also specify an arbitrarily large logical size. When your existing drive begins to fill up and nears the physical limit, Windows will display a notification in the Action Center, prompting you to add additional physical storage space. Selecting the Parity resiliency type allows Windows to store parity information with the data, thereby protecting you from a single drive failure.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Three-way mirror resiliency type allows Windows to store three copies of your data. Mirroring uses drive space less efficiently than parity.
C: Spanned volumes are not fault tolerant
D: Striped volumes are not fault tolerant
http://www.howtogeek.com/109380/how-to-use-windows-8s-storage-spaces-to-mirror-combine-drives/ https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc772180.aspx
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732422.aspx

QUESTION 37
Drag and Drop Question
You have a Windows 10 Enterprise computer.
You have a 1-terabyte external hard drive.
You purchase a second 1-terabyte external hard drive.
You need to create a fault-tolerant volume that includes both external hard drives.
You also need to ensure that additional external hard drives can be added to the volume.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

371

Answer:

372

Explanation:
Storage Spaces can combine multiple hard drives into a single virtual drive. To create a storage space, you’ll have to connect two or more additional internal or external drives to your computer to create a storage pool. When creating the pool, any existing data on the disks will be lost. It is therefore important to back up the data if you do not want to lose it. You can also specify an arbitrarily large logical size. When your existing drive begins to fill up and nears the physical limit, Windows will display a notification in the Action Center, prompting you to add additional physical storage space. Selecting the Two-way mirror resiliency type allows Windows to store two copies of your data, so that you won’t lose your data if one of your drives fails.
http://www.howtogeek.com/109380/how-to-use-windows-8s-storage-spaces-to-mirror-combine-drives/

QUESTION 38
Hotspot Question
You manage 50 computers that run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You have a Windows To Go workspace installed on a USB drive named USB1.
You need to configure USB1 to meet the following requirements:

– When you run Windows To Go from USB1, you can see the contents of the computer’s internal drives from File Explorer.
– When you connect USB1 to a computer that runs Windows 10, you can automatically view the content of USB1 from File Explorer.

In the table below, select the action that must be performed to achieve each requirement.
NOTE: Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.

381

Answer:

382

Explanation:
If you want to view the contents of the computer’s internal drives from File Explorer when you run Windows To Go from USB1, you have to launch an elevated command prompt, run diskpart and then execute the List disk command. You now have to select the internal disk using the sel disk command, and then enter the online disk command.
Configuring the attributes volume option from DiskPart allows you to display, set, or clear the attributes of a volume.
Incorrect Answers:
Configuring the attributes disk option from DiskPart allows you to display, set, or clear the attributes of a disk.
Fsutil volume is used to dismount a volume, query to see how much free space is available on a disk, or find a file that is using a specified cluster.
Fsutil behavior is used to query or set NTFS volume behaviour.
http://www.verboon.info/2012/12/how-to-access-data-from-the-local-disk-when-running-a-windows-to-go-workspace/
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732970.aspx
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc753059.aspx

QUESTION 39
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers that are members of an Active Directory domain. Recently, several domain user accounts have been configured with super-mandatory user profiles.
A user reports that she has lost all of her personal data after a computer restart.
You need to configure the user’s computer to prevent possible user data loss in the future.
What should you do?

A.    Remove the .man extension from the user profile name.
B.    Configure Folder Redirection by using the domain group policy.
C.    Configure the user’s documents library to include folders from network shares.
D.    Add the .dat extension to the user profile name.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Folder Redirection allows administrators to redirect the path of a folder to a new location, which can be a folder on the local computer or a directory on a network file share. Users can then work with documents on a server as if the documents were based on a local drive, but are available to the user from any computer on the network. Folder Redirection can be found under Windows Settings in the console tree by editing domain-based Group Policy via the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC).
Incorrect Answers:
A: A super mandatory profile is a roaming profile in which the profile path ends in .man. Removing the .man extension will create a roaming profile, which will not solve the problem.
C: A super mandatory profile prevents users from saving any changes to their profile, which includes the user’s documents library.
D: A super mandatory profile is a roaming profile in which the profile path ends in .man. Adding the .dat extension will result in an error.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/cc732275.aspx
http://windowsitpro.com/systems-management/inside-user-profiles

QUESTION 40
You have a client Windows 10 Enterprise computer. The computer is joined to an Active Directory domain. The computer does not have a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip installed.
You need to configure BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) on the operating system drive.
Which Group Policy object (GPO) setting should you configure?

A.    Allow access to BitLocker-protected fixed data drives from earlier version of Windows.
B.    Require additional authentication at startup.
C.    Allow network unlock at startup.
D.    Configure use of hardware-based encryption for operating system drives.

Answer: B
Explanation:
To make use of BitLocker on a drive without TPM, you should run the gpedit.msc command.
You must then access the Require additional authentication at startup setting by navigating to Computer Configuration \Administrative Templates\Windows Components\Bit Locker Drive Encryption\Operating System Drives under Local Computer Policy. You can now enable the feature and tick the Allow BitLocker without a compatible TPM checkbox.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Allow access to BitLocker-protected fixed data drives from earlier version of Windows policy setting is used to control whether access to drives is allowed via the BitLocker To Go Reader, and if the application is installed on the drive.
C: The Allow network unlock at startup policy allows clients running BitLocker to create the necessary network key protector during encryption.
D: The Configure use of hardware-based encryption for operating system drives policy controls how BitLocker reacts when encrypted drives are used as operating system drives http://www.howtogeek.com/howto/6229/how-to-use-bitlocker-on-drives-without-tpm/ https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj679890.aspx#BKMK_depopt4

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QUESTION 41
Hotspot Question
Resources must authenticate to an identity provider.
You need to configure the Azure Access Control service.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate responses for each requirement in the answer area. Continue reading

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QUESTION 41
You manage a software-as-a-service application named SaasApp1 that provides user management features in a multi-directory environment.
You plan to offer SaasApp1 to other organizations that use Azure Active Directory.
You need to ensure that SaasApp1 can access directory objects.
What should you do?

A.    Configure the Federation Metadata URL
B.    Register SaasApp1 as a native client application.
C.    Register SaasApp1 as a web application.
D.    Configure the Graph API. Continue reading

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QUESTION 141
Which of the following should be measured with a direct cost chargeback method?

A.    Power and cooling consumed
B.    CPU cycles used
C.    Technical staff
D.    Square footage cost of the facility Continue reading

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