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Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).

A.    Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
B.    Rainbow tables must include precompiled hashes.
C.    Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
D.    Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
E.    Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.

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An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?

A.    Review past security incidents and their resolution
B.    Rewrite the existing security policy
C.    Implement an intrusion prevention system
D.    Install honey pot systems

Answer: C
The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it

A company has proprietary mission critical devices connected to their network which are configured remotely by both employees and approved customers. The administrator wants to monitor device security without changing their baseline configuration.
Which of the following should be implemented to secure the devices without risking availability?

A.    Host-based firewall
B.    IDS
C.    IPS
D.    Honeypot

Answer: B
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management station. IDS come in a variety of “flavors” and approach the goal of detecting suspicious traffic in different ways. There are network based (NIDS) and host based (HIDS) intrusion detection systems. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPSes for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats and deterring individuals from violating security policies. IDPSes have become a necessary addition to the security infrastructure of nearly every organization.
IDPSes typically record information related to observed events, notify security administrators of important observed events and produce reports. Many IDPSes can also respond to a detected threat by attempting to prevent it from succeeding. They use several response techniques, which involve the IDPS stopping the attack itself, changing the security environment (e.g. reconfiguring a firewall) or changing the attack’s content.

Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:

– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2


Use the following answer for this simulation task.
Below table has all the answers required for this question.


Firewall rules act like ACLs, and they are used to dictate what traffic can pass between the firewall and the internal network. Three possible actions can be taken based on the rule’s criteria:

Block the connection
Allow the connection
Allow the connection only if it is secured

TCP is responsible for providing a reliable, one-to-one, connection-oriented session.
TCP establishes a connection and ensures that the other end receives any packets sent.
Two hosts communicate packet results with each other. TCP also ensures that packets are decoded and sequenced properly. This connection is persistent during the session.
When the session ends, the connection is torn down.
UDP provides an unreliable connectionless communication method between hosts.
UDP is considered a best-effort protocol, but it’s considerably faster than TCP.
The sessions don’t establish a synchronized session like the kind used in TCP, and UDP doesn’t guarantee error-free communications.
The primary purpose of UDP is to send small packets of information.
The application is responsible for acknowledging the correct reception of the data.
Port 22 is used by both SSH and SCP with UDP.
Port 443 is used for secure web connections ?HTTPS and is a TCP port.
Thus to make sure only the Accounting computer has HTTPS access to the Administrative server you should use TCP port 443 and set the rule to allow communication between (Accounting) and (Administrative server1) Thus to make sure that only the HR computer has access to Server2 over SCP you need use of TCP port 22 and set the rule to allow communication between (HR) and (server2)
Thus to make sure that the IT computer can access both the Administrative servers you need to use a port and accompanying port number and set the rule to allow communication between: (IT computer) and (Administrative server1) (IT computer) and (Administrative server2)

Hotspot Question
The security administrator has installed a new firewall which implements an implicit DENY policy by default Click on the firewall and configure it to allow ONLY the following communication.

1. The Accounting workstation can ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port. The accounting workstation should not access other networks.
2. The HR workstation should be restricted to communicate with the Financial server ONLY, over the default SCP port
3. The Admin workstation should ONLY be able to access the servers on the secure network over the default TFTP port.

Instructions: The firewall will process the rules in a top-down manner in order as a first match The port number must be typed in and only one port number can be entered per rule Type ANY for all ports. The original firewall configuration can be reset at any time by pressing the reset button. Once you have met the simulation requirements, click save and then Done to submit.





Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default.
Rule #1 allows the Accounting workstation to ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port, which is TCP port 443.
Rule #2 allows the HR workstation to ONLY communicate with the Financial server over the default SCP port, which is TCP Port 22
Rule #3 & Rule #4 allow the Admin workstation to ONLY access the Financial and Purchasing servers located on the secure network over the default TFTP port, which is Port 69.

Which of the following firewall rules only denies DNS zone transfers?

A.    deny udp any any port 53
B.    deny ip any any
C.    deny tcp any any port 53
D.    deny all dns packets

Answer: C
DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers.

A security administrator suspects that an increase in the amount of TFTP traffic on the network is due to unauthorized file transfers, and wants to configure a firewall to block all TFTP traffic.
Which of the following would accomplish this task?

A.    Deny TCP port 68
B.    Deny TCP port 69
C.    Deny UDP port 68
D.    Deny UDP port 69

Answer: D
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple file-exchange protocol that doesn’t require authentication. It operates on UDP port 69.

Sara, a security technician, has received notice that a vendor coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside of the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. How could Sara BEST accommodate the vendor?

A.    Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor’s IP address.
B.    Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
C.    Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
D.    Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.

Answer: D
Firewall rules are used to define what traffic is able pass between the firewall and the internal network. Firewall rules block the connection, allow the connection, or allow the connection only if it is secured. Firewall rules can be applied to inbound traffic or outbound traffic and any type of network.

A technician is deploying virtual machines for multiple customers on a single physical host to reduce power consumption in a data center. Which of the following should be recommended to isolate the VMs from one another?

A.    Implement a virtual firewall
B.    Install HIPS on each VM
C.    Virtual switches with VLANs
D.    Develop a patch management guide

Answer: C
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments.

A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks.
Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces?

A.    The network uses the subnet of
B.    The switch has several VLANs configured on it.
C.    The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic.
D.    The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service.

Answer: B
A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.

Joe, a technician at the local power plant, notices that several turbines had ramp up in cycles during the week. Further investigation by the system engineering team determined that a timed .exe file had been uploaded to the system control console during a visit by international contractors. Which of the following actions should Joe recommend?

A.    Create a VLAN for the SCADA
B.    Enable PKI for the MainFrame
C.    Implement patch management
D.    Implement stronger WPA2 Wireless

Answer: A
VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments. This can be accomplished by not defining a route between different VLANs or by specifying a deny filter between certain VLANs (or certain members of a VLAN). Any network segment that doesn’t need to communicate with another in order to accomplish a work task/function shouldn’t be able to do so.

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If a project sponsor wants to know the current status and progress of a project, which of the following is the BEST approach to find this information?

A.    The project sponsor should obtain the current status from team members, put it into a presentation, and present it to the project manager for review.
B.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, apply it to the baseline of the schedule, and run a report
C.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the project charter, project management plan, dashboard, and SOW; and then create a status report to provide to the project manager.
D.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the risk register, and provide the information to the project champion for review

Answer: B

Which documents does a vendor rely on to commit funding and resources to a project?

A.    SOW
B.    PO
C.    SU
D.    MOU

Answer: B

A project coordinator logs potential events that can affect project constraints, and then records the results of brainstorm,TM of potential strategies.
Which of the following documents should the project coordinator use?

A.    Risk register
B.    Issue log
C.    Communication plan
D.    Status report

Answer: A

Which of the following describes how a project is related to a program?

A.    A program is a combination of multiple projects.
B.    A program contains an element of the project.
C.    A program is a part of a project.
D.    A program uses half of the project’s budget.

Answer: A

Which of the following is a key aspect of the Agile project management methodology?

A.    Test-driven
B.    Daily standup meetings
C.    Short project durations
D.    Defined list of requirements

Answer: B

Which of the following are examples of organizational change? (Choose two.).

A.    Relocation
B.    Scope
C.    Business process
D.    Schedule
E.    Risk event

Answer: AC

A vendor has accepted a proposed project from a customer.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be the first document created by the project manager?

A.    Project charter
B.    Project management plan
C.    Project statement of work
D.    Project schedule

Answer: B

The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.),

A.    managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.
B.    contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.
C.    setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.
D.    outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects
E.    approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements

Answer: CD

Which of the following describes risk mitigation?

A.    The transfer of the risk to another entity or project inside or outside the organization, along with associated costs
B.    The understanding of the risk with a detailed explanation of how the project intends to address the potential for occurrence
C.    The quantification of the risk in terms of how much the risk could potentially cost the project or parent organization
D.    The weighting or prioritization of the risk against all other identified risks within this project or others associated with it

Answer: B

A project manager has noticed poor attendance at status meetings. Which of the following strategies should the project manager use to improve attendance? (Choose two.)

A.    Provide an agenda before the status meeting
B.    Adhere to an agenda and scheduled time
C.    Add non-project-related items to the agenda
D.    Add and discuss new agenda items throughout the meeting.
E.    Discard the action items at the conclusion of the meeting.

Answer: AB

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Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?

A.    Reservations
B.    Lease times
C.    Removing IPs from the active leases
D.    Configuring the DNS options

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A security analyst is adding input to the incident response communication plan.
A company officer has suggested that if a data breach occurs, only affected parties should be notified to keep an incident from becoming a media headline.
Which of the following should the analyst recommend to the company officer?

A.    The first responder should contact law enforcement upon confirmation of a security incident in order for a forensics team to preserve chain of custody.
B.    Guidance from laws and regulations should be considered when deciding who must be notified in order to avoid fines and judgements from non-compliance.
C.    An externally hosted website should be prepared in advance to ensure that when an incident occurs victims have timely access to notifications from a non-compromised recourse.
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Driven mainly by cost, many companies outsource computing jobs which require a large amount of processor cycles over a short duration to cloud providers.
This allows the company to avoid a large investment in computing resources which will only be used for a short time.
Assuming the provisioned resources are dedicated to a single company, which of the following is the MAIN vulnerability associated with on-demand provisioning?

A.    Traces of proprietary data which can remain on the virtual machine and be exploited
B.    Remnants of network data from prior customers on the physical servers during a compute
C.    Exposure of proprietary data when in-transit to the cloud provider through IPSec tunnels
D.    Failure of the de-provisioning mechanism resulting in excessive charges for the resources

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Which of the following for which of the following cable style connector?

A.    DVI
B.    VGA
C.    RGB
D.    Composite video

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In which of the following locations would a technician go to show file extensions?

A.    Security Center
B.    Folder Options
C.    Display
D.    System

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Drag and Drop Question
A security administrator is given the security and availability profiles for servers that are being deployed.

1) Match each RAID type with the correct configuration and MINIMUM number of drives.
2) Review the server profiles and match them with the appropriate RAID type based on integrity, availability, I/O, storage requirements. Instructions:

– All drive definitions can be dragged as many times as necessary
– Not all placeholders may be filled in the RAID configuration boxes
– If parity is required, please select the appropriate number of parity checkboxes
– Server profiles may be dragged only once

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.

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Which of the following should be deployed to prevent the transmission of malicious traffic between virtual machines hosted on a singular physical device on a network?

A.    HIPS on each virtual machine
B.    NIPS on the network
C.    NIDS on the network
D.    HIDS on each virtual machine

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The project manager was asked to provide recommendations for the removal of a vendor.
A meeting was scheduled with the key stakeholders and the project sponsor to highlight the reasons for this recommendation.
Which of the following should the project manager bring to the meeting to support this recommendation? (Choose two.)

A.    The issue log to show why the vendor should be replaced
B.    The team action items to show why the vendor should be replaced
C.    The scope statement to show why the vendor should be replaced
D.    A procurement plan to show why the vendor should be replaced
E.    A change management plan to have the vendor replaced

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Which of the following would a technician do to monitor remote traffic through an access point?

A.    Enable an SNMP agent
B.    Enable network mapping
C.    Set monitoring SSID
D.    Select WPA2

Answer: A
Large networks with hundreds or thousands of nodes are difficult to manage without a large staff to monitor every computer. SNMP, which is widely used in local area networks (LANs), lets you monitor network nodes from a management host. You can monitor network devices such as servers, workstations, printers, routers, bridges, and hubs, as well as services such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) or Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).

Which of the following commands can a network technician use to check whether the DNS server for a given domain is reachable?

A.    nmap
B.    nbtstat
C.    dig
D.    arp

Answer: C
The commanddigis a tool for querying DNS nameservers for information about host addresses, mail exchanges, nameservers, and related information. This tool can be used from any Linux (Unix) or Macintosh OS X operating system. The most typical use of dig is to simply query a single host.

Which of the following standards can operate at either 20MHz or 40MHz channel spacing?

A.    802.11a
B.    802.11b
C.    802.11g
D.    802.11n

Answer: D
The 2.4 GHz ISM band is fairly congested. With 802.11n, there is the option to double the bandwidth per channel to 40 MHz which results in slightly more than double the data rate. However, when in 2.4 GHz, enabling this option takes up to 82%[10] of the unlicensed band, which in many areas may prove to be infeasible.
The specification calls for requiring one primary 20 MHz channel as well as a secondary adjacent channel spaced ?0 MHz away. The primary channel is used for communications with clients incapable of 40 MHz mode. When in 40 MHz mode, the center frequency is actually the mean of the primary and secondary channels.

A client’s computer is unable to access any network resources. Which of the following utilities can a technician use to determine the IP address of the client’s machine?

A.    ipconfig
B.    nslookup
C.    dig
D.    tracert

Answer: A
ipconfigis a commmand line utility available on all versions of Microsoft Windows starting with Windows NT. ipconfig is designed to be run from the Windows command prompt. This utility allows you to get the IP address information of a Windows computer. It also allows some control over active TCP/IP connections. ipconfig is an alternative to the older ‘winipcfg’ utility.

A user’s computer is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following utilities can a technician use to determine if DNS is working?

A.    nbstat
B.    arp
C.    nslookup
D.    ipconfig

Answer: C
nslookupis a network utility program used to obtain information about Internet servers. As its name suggests, the utility finds name server information for domains by querying DNS.

Which of the following can MOST likely cause intermittent connection problems with a CAT5 network cable?

A.    Cable has been looped too many times.
B.    Cable has a twist tie attached too close to the connector.
C.    Cable is too warm.
D.    Cable is run too close to a fluorescent light.

Answer: D
Explanation: Cat 5is a twisted pair cablefor carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured cabling for computer networks such as Ethernet. The cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and is suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).

Given a subnet mask of, how many usable IP addresses would be in that subnet?

A.    250
B.    254
C.    255
D.    256

Answer: B
TheSubnet Maskhowever, determines the “class” of a Network. is a “Class C” network.A class c network can host up to 254 pc’s

On which of the following OSI model layers would a MAC address be used?

A.    Network
B.    Data Link
C.    Transport
D.    Physical

Answer: B
The ITU-TG.hnstandard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of aselective repeatSliding Window Protocol.

Joe, a network technician, is troubleshooting in a wiring closet in 2011. The cabling to all the equipment does not match the documentation from 2007. Which of the following configuration management methods has been overlooked?

A.    Change management
B.    System logs
C.    Asset management
D.    Baselining

Answer: A
Change management is the request for to change any configuration which is documented.

Which of the following TCP/IP model layers does the OSI model Presentation layer map to?

A.    Transport
B.    Internet
C.    Application
D.    Network Interface

Answer: C
TheApplication layerprovides applications the ability to access the services of the other layers and defines the protocols that applications use to exchange data. There are many Application layer protocols and new protocols are always being developed.

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