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QUESTION 11
What is the optimum distance for a person sitting using the Cisco TelePresence System 500?

A.    the camera can adjust automatically
B.    0.5 meters and 0.75 meters (1.5 and 2.5 feet)
C.    1.2 meters and 1.8 meters (4 and 6 feet)
D.    3.0 and 5.0 meters (10 and 15 feet) Continue reading

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QUESTION 11
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.
A new phone has been added to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, but is not registering properly.
What is causing this failure? Continue reading

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QUESTION 392
Which two statements regarding the Cisco VCS search and transformation process are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The Cisco VCS applies the search rules in priority order (all rules with priority 255 are processed first, then rules with priority 254, and so on).
B.    Transforms do not use priority numbers.
C.    Presearch transforms are applied before call policy is configured and before user policy is applied.
D.    Presearch transforms are applied after call policy is configured but before user policy is applied.
E.    The Cisco VCS applies the search rules in priority order (all rules with priority 1 are processed first, then priority 2, and so on).
F.    You cannot set up search rules according to the protocol SIP or H.323.

Continue reading

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QUESTION 249
Some of yours users report issues when they are dialing extensions located in other branch offices. Sometimes the calls are set up successfully, and sometimes users experience problems during call setup. Which two reasons for the issue are true? (Choose two)

A.    Not enough bandwidth is available between the two locations and Automated Alternate Routing is disabled on this cluster.
B.    The Partition that contains the called extensions is not assigned to the line or device CSS of the calling users.
C.    A firewall rule blocks traffic between the branch offices so the call setup cannot be completed.
D.    The called extension is used only on a device profile for extension mobility and the user has been authenticated to a second phone in a different branch so the calls are delivered randomly to only one of his phones.
E.    The remote branch experiences WAN link outages and there is no Forward Unregistered Internal number configured for the remote directory number. Continue reading

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QUESTION 21
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?

A.    2 dB
B.    3 dB
C.    4 dB
D.    5 dB Continue reading

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QUESTION 21
Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber optic connections over UTP?

A.    signal attenuation
B.    required bandwidth
C.    required distance
D.    electromagnetic interference
E.    cost Continue reading

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QUESTION 21
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)

A.    provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B.    allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C.    has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D.    uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E.    uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation Continue reading

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. What type of network communication is depicted? Continue reading

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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output.
Which information is provided by the Load value?

Continue reading

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QUESTION 31
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

A.    There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.    A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.    Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.    In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network
media before transmitting.
E.    The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet–typically 10BaseT–is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps–at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

QUESTION 32
Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

A.    show ip route
B.    show interfaces
C.    show s0/0 status
D.    debug s0/0
E.    show run
F.    show version

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

A.    172.16.0.0
B.    172.16.128.0
C.    172.16.156.0
D.    172.16.159.0
E.    172.16.159.128
F.    172.16.192.0

Answer: C
Explanation:
Converting to binary format it comes to
11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000 or
255.255.252.0
Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.

QUESTION 34
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

A.    192.168.4.61
B.    192.168.4.63
C.    192.168.4.67
D.    192.168.4.125
E.    192.168.4.128
F.    192.168.4.132

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others lie beyond it.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1.
Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

351

A.    192.168.1.31
B.    192.168.1.64
C.    192.168.1.127
D.    192.168.1.190
E.    192.168.1.192

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

A.    192.168.23.0
B.    192.168.23.32
C.    192.168.23.48
D.    192.168.23.56
E.    192.168.23.60

Answer: C
Explanation:
convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet, that subnet’s first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on above steps the answer is option C.

QUESTION 37
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

A.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C.    Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D.    Assign the addresses statically on each node.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than use dynamic protocol as it is easy to operate and manage.

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown.
What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

381

A.    255.255.255.192
B.    255.255.255.224
C.    255.255.255.240
D.    255.255.255.248
E.    255.255.255.252

Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A.    The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B.    The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C.    The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D.    The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E.    The network is not subnetted.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254

QUESTION 40
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8
E.    252
F.    254

Answer: B
Explanation:
/30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.

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QUESTION 334
You must identify and isolate traffic loss. Which option do you configure to monitor EPG-to-EPG traffic within a tenant?

A.    SPAN
B.    traffic map
C.    tcpdump
D.    atomic counters Continue reading

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QUESTION 11
Which statement about PEST analysis is true?

A.    Political aspects can be identified easily through surveys.
B.    Economic and social implications are relevant only with the public sector.
C.    A PEST analysis allows you to take an independent, outside-in view of factors that impact the customer’s situation.
D.    A PEST analysis often can be related directly to specific findings from the operating process analysis.

Continue reading

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