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What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?

A.    Show mpls ldp parameters
B.    Show mpls ldp bindings
C.    Show mpls forwading-table
D.    Show mpls ldp discovery
E.    Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

Answer: B

Drag and Drop Questions




Refer to the exhibit. The vrf MAINT has been provisioned and used by the Service Provider management network. The engineer discovers that syslog messages are not being received on the syslog server. IP reachability has been validated using ping.
Which issue in the configuration must be corrected?


A.    logging on must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
B.    logging host must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
C.    The logging facility must be configured for syslog processing.
D.    The route targets that are configured do not match the route distinguisher.

Answer: B

Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)

A.    source MAC address
B.    source port
C.    source IP address
D.    destination IP address
E.    IP protocol ID
F.    destination MAC address

Answer: BCD

An R1 router requires an equal load balancing to reach the prefix over two exit points: through R2 and R3 routers. Which two options must be configured on the R1 router to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    The BGP maximum path feature must be configured on R1.
B.    The BGP PIC core must be enabled on R1
C.    Weight, local-pref, MED, as-path length, origin, and the BGP next-hop IGP cost must be the same for the R2 and R3 IBGP updates to R1.
D.    The BGP Link Bandwidth feature must be applied on R1.
E.    BGP extended community exchange must be enabled between IBGP neighbors.

Answer: AC
BGP link-bandwidth is for unequal-cost routes.

A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?

A.    A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B.    A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C.    A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D.    A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.

Answer: A

Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)

A.    general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B.    section monitoring
C.    reserved (RES)
D.    general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E.    tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)

Answer: CDE

Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)

A.    asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B.    normal response mode (NRM)
C.    normal peer mode (NPM)
D.    asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E.    asynchronous response mode (ARM)

Answer: ABE
Asynchronous response mode is an HDLC addition[1] for use over full-duplex links. While retaining the primary/secondary distinction, it allows the secondary to transmit at any time. Asynchronous balanced mode added the concept of a combined terminal which can act as both a primary and a secondary. There are some subtleties about this mode of operation; while many features of the protocol do not care whether they are in a command or response frame, some do, and the address field of a received frame must be examined to determine whether it contains a command (the address received is ours) or a response (the address received is that of the other terminal).

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Which OpenStack component implements role-based access control?

A.    Horizon
B.    Nova
C.    Neutron
D.    Keystone

Answer: D

Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured as the R1 neighbor in area 51, but R2 fails to receive the configured summary route.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?


A.    Replace the summary-address command with the area-range command.
B.    Configure a summary address under R1interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
C.    Configure a summary address under R1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0.
D.    Configure the no discard-route command in the OSPF process of R1.
E.    Configure ip ospf network broadcast under the Loopback0 interface of R1.

Answer: A

Which two conditions must be met before IS-IS Level 1 routers will become adjacent?(Choose two.)

A.    The routers must share a common Autonomous System Number.
B.    The router must share a common process ID.
C.    The router must be in different areas.
D.    The routers must share a common network segment.
E.    The routers must be configured with the neighbor command.
F.    The routers must be in the same area.

Answer: DF

Which two statements are true about control plane policing? (Choose two.)

A.    Control plane policing will affect only traffic that is destined to the route processor.
B.    Access lists that are used in policies for control plane policing must not use the log keyword.
C.    Access lists that use the deny rule in control plane policing do not progress to the next class.
D.    The log keyword can be used but the log-input keyword must not be used in policing.

Answer: AB

Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose three)

A.    metric
B.    authentication type
C.    link state
D.    IP subnet
E.    external route tag
F.    subnet mask

Answer: ACF

Your NetFlow collector is not working due to a large amount of traffic entering your network which is destined to a single IP address.
Which NetFlow feature allows you to collect the top source hosts for this traffic on the local router?

A.    NetFlow can export flows only to a extermal flow collector
B.    show ip cache flow
C.    ip accounting
D.    ip flow-top-talkers

Answer: D

Refer to the exhibit. R1, R2 and R3 are in different satelite offices of the same prganization.
A multicast video source is located behind R1.R3 frequently receives video streams intend for R2.
These streams saturate the available bandwidth of R3.
Which configuration change can alleviate the congestion on R3?


A.    Configure R3 to send an immediate-leave message when necessary to stop receiving unwanted traffic.
B.    Configure IGMP snooping on R1, R2, and R3.
C.    Place a PIM filter on the switches and interfaces that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
D.    Enable IGMP snooping on all switches that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
E.    Place a PIM filter on the switch and interface that connect to R1 only.

Answer: D

With which protocol is CoAP designed to be used?

A.    TCP
B.    SNMP
C.    UDP
D.    XMPP

Answer: C

Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two.)

A.    fast retransmission
B.    fast recovery
C.    low-latency queuing
D.    IP service level agreements
E.    congestion-avoidance algorithm

Answer: CD
In the actual exam, if becomes single choice question just choose C.

Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three.)

A.    It forwards Ethernet frames.
B.    It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops
C.    It supports MAC address aging.
D.    It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports.
E.    It conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol.
F.    It can suppress the flooding of traffic.

Answer: ACD

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Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP Dial Rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about the call setup process of this call is true?


A.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend the call as soon as the collected digits
match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service configuration on both IP phones.
B.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event. When the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, Cisco Unified Communications
will extend the call only if the class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
C.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service
configuration on both IP phones.
D.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call only if class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
E.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, and then send all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of
service configuration on both IP phones.

Answer: D
Cisco Type B SIP Phones offer functionality based SIP INVITE Message. Every key the end user presses triggers an individual SIP message. The first event is communicated with a SIP INVITE, but subsequent messages use SIP NOTIFY messages. The SIP NOTIFY messages send KPML events corresponding to any buttons or soft keys pressed by the user. Cisco Type B SIP IP Phones with SIP dial rules operate in the same manner as Cisco Type A phones with dial rules.

What does a comma accomplish when it is used in a SIP Dial Rule pattern that is associated with a Cisco 9971 IP Phone that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    It inserts a 500-millisecond pause between digits.
B.    It causes the phone to generate a secondary dial tone.
C.    It is a delimiter and has no significant dialing impact.
D.    It indicates a timeout value of 5000 milliseconds.
E.    It is an obsolete parameter and will be ignored.

Answer: B
Comma is accepted in speed dial as delimiter and pause. -Comma used to delineate dial string, FAC, CMC, and post connect digits For post connect digits, commas insert a 2 second delay Commas may be duplicated to create longer delays

Which Call Admission Control mechanism is supported for the Cisco Extension Mobility Cross Cluster solution?

A.    Location CAC
C.    H.323 gatekeeper
D.    intercluster Enhanced Location CAC
E.    visiting cluster’s LBM hub

Answer: B
Configuring extension mobility cross cluster (EMCC) is nothing you should take lightly. EMCC requires a lot of configuration parameters including the exporting and importing of each neighbor cluster’s X.509v3 digital certificates. EMCC is supported over SIP trunks only. Presence is another feature that’s only supported over SIP trunks. If you want to be able to perform scalable Call Admission Control (CAC) in a distributed multi- cluster call processing model, you will need to point an H.225 or Gatekeeper controlled trunk to an H.323 Gatekeeper for CAC… but if you want to support presence and EMCC between clusters and maintain CAC.

Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP profile configuration parameters for a SIP intercluster trunk are mandatory to enable end-to-end RSVP SIP Preconditions between clusters? (Choose two.)

A.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to Local RSVP.
B.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to E2E.
C.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Disabled.
D.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK If 1xx Contains SDP.
E.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK for All 1xx Messages.
F.    Check the Fall Back to Local RSVP check box.

Answer: BD
Each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME should have the same configuration information. For example, Application ID should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME. RSVP Service parameters should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster.

What is the number of directory URIs with which a Cisco Unified Communications Manager directory number can be associated?

A.    1
B.    up to 2
C.    up to 3
D.    up to 4
E.    up to 5

Answer: E
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager partition will be associated with a directory URI that is configured for an end user with a primary extension?

A.    null
B.    none
C.    directory URI
D.    default
E.    any partition that the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator desires

Answer: C
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

Which Call Control Discovery function allows the local Cisco Unified Communications Manager to listen for advertisements from remote call-control entities that use the SAF network?

A.    CCD advertising service
B.    CCD requesting service
C.    SAF forwarder
D.    SAF enabled trunks
E.    CCD registration service

Answer: B
SAF and CCD will allow large distributed multi-cluster deployments to have the directory number (DN) ranges of each call routing element advertised dynamically over SAF. Cisco routers act as SAF Forwarders (SAFF), while the call routing elements (e.g. CUCM) act as clients that register with the routers to advertise their DN ranges and listen to the advertisements of other routers.

Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP?

A.    Low
B.    Medium
C.    High
D.    Secure
E.    Flex

Answer: E
The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode

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Refer to the exhibit. All routers in this network are configured to place all interfaces in OSPF area 5. R3 is the designated router on the network. If you examine the OSPF database on R4, what would the network (type 2) LSA, generated by R3, contain? Continue reading

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You have just added a new MSE to Prime Infrastructure and want to synchronize the MSE with your 5508 WLC. which is located behind a firewall in a DMZ.
You notice that NMSP messages are failing between the two devices.
What traffic needs to be allowed on the Firewall to ensure the MSE and WLC can communicate using NMSP?

A.    UDP 16113
B.    TCP 1613
C.    TCP 16113
D.    UDP 1613 Continue reading

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An engineer is assigned to provide wireless coverage in a provincial capital building. Due to the age and historic nature of the building, the ability to run new copper Ethernet cable to desired AP locations is limited. Which requirement should the engineer specify to overcome this restriction?

A.    Deploy access points where the survey indicates and connect them via fiber optic cable, using a mediaadapter, and locally provide power.
B.    Deploy access points to each phone location converting two spare pairs of copper from the phone line toEthernet and locally provide power.
C.    Deploy access point devices where limited cable can be run or exists and connect high-gain antennas andincrease Tx power to increase cell size.
D.    Deploy RAP where limited cable can be run or exists, and extend coverage using MAP.

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Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?

A.    OTV
B.    VSS
C.    vPC
D.    VDC

Answer: C

Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?

A.    OTV
B.    VSS
C.    vPC
D.    VLAN

Answer: A

What is the purpose of an OTV edge device?

A.    connect to other data centers
B.    connect to the access layer
C.    connect to the end users
D.    connect to mobile devices

Answer: A
“Edge Device
The edge device (Figure 1-1) performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure.
Finally, the OTV edge device can be positioned in different parts of the data center. ”

Which QoS architecture provides scalability of implementation?

A.    IntServ
B.    DiffServ
C.    LLQ
D.    RSVP

Answer: B

Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business applications?

A.    IntServ
B.    DiffServ
C.    LLQ
D.    ToS
E.    DSCP

Answer: A
DiffServ is known as “Hop-by-Hop” and not “End-to-End”

CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?

A.    MPLS
B.    IEEE 802.1W
C.    IEEE 802.1Q
D.    IEEE 802.1S

Answer: C

Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why?

A.    UDP, because it is connectionless
B.    SSH, because the username and password are encrypted
C.    Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear
D.    MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol

Answer: B

What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?

A.    It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
B.    Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
C.    There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
D.    SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.

Answer: B

The direction of the flow of multicast traffic is based on which protocol?

A.    PIM
B.    IGMP
C.    underlying IGP
D.    MSDP

Answer: C
“Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) PIM uses the unicast routing information to create a distribution tree along the reverse path from the receivers towards the source. The multicast routers then forward packets along the distribution tree from the source to the receivers. RPF is a key concept in multicast forwarding. It enables routers to correctly forward multicast traffic down the distribution tree. RPF makes use of the existing unicast routing table to determine the upstream and downstream neighbors. A router will forward a multicast packet only if it is received on the upstream interface. This RPF check helps to guarantee that the distribution tree will be loopfree.”

Which option can be implemented to manipulate the election of PIM DR to force multicast traffic to a certain path?

A.    Assign a lower PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
B.    Assign a lower IP address to the PIM DR interface.
C.    Assign a higher PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
D.    Increase the cost on the PIM DR interface.

Answer: C

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Which version of AsyncOS for web is required to deploy the Web Security Appliance as a CWS connector?

A.    AsyncOS version 7.7.x
B.    AsyncOS version 7.5.x
C.    AsyncOS version 7.5.7
D.    AsyncOS version 7.5.0

Answer: C

What are three benefits of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Solution? (Choose three.)

A.    It can protect against command-injection and directory-traversal attacks.
B.    It provides Internet transport while maintaining corporate security policies.
C.    It provides secure remote access to managed computers.
D.    It provides clientless remote access to multiple network-based systems.
E.    It enforces security policies, regardless of the user location.
F.    It uses ACLs to determine best-route connections for clients in a secure environment.

Answer: BCE

Which Cisco technology secures the network through malware filtering, category-based control, and reputation-based control?

A.    Cisco ASA 5500 Series appliances
B.    Cisco remote-access VPNs
C.    Cisco IronPort WSA
D.    Cisco IPS

Answer: C

Which antispam technology assumes that email from server A, which has a history of distributing spam, is more likely to be spam than email from server B, which does not have a history of distributing spam?

A.    Reputation-based filtering
B.    Context-based filtering
C.    Cisco ESA multilayer approach
D.    Policy-based filtering

Answer: A

Which Cisco technology is a modular security service that combines a stateful inspection firewall with next-generation application awareness, providing near real-time threat protection?

A.    Cisco ASA 5500 series appliances
B.    Cisco ASA CX Context-Aware Security
C.    WSA
D.    Internet Edge Firewall / IPS

Answer: B

Which three statements about Cisco ASA CX are true? (Choose three.)

A.    It groups multiple ASAs as a single logical device.
B.    It can perform context-aware inspection.
C.    It provides high-density security services with high availability.
D.    It uses policy-based interface controls to inspect and forward TCP- and UDP-based packets.
E.    It can make context-aware decisions.
F.    It uses four cooperative architectural constructs to build the firewall.

Answer: BEF

During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?

A.    cxsc fail
B.    cxsc fail-close
C.    cxsc fail-open
D.    cxssp fail-close

Answer: B

Cisco AVC allows control of which three of the following? (Choose three.)

A.    Facebook
C.    IPv6
D.    MySpace
E.    Twitter
F.    WCCP

Answer: ADE

The Web Security Appliance has identities defined for faculty and staff, students, and default access. The faculty and staff identity identifies users based on the source network and authenticated credentials. The identity for students identifies users based on the source network along with successful authentication credentials. The global identity is for guest users not authenticated against the domain.
Recently, a change was made to the organization’s security policy to allow faculty and staff access to a social network website, and the security group changed the access policy for faculty and staff to allow the social networking category.
Which are the two most likely reasons that the category is still being blocked for a faculty and staff user? (Choose two.)

A.    The user is being matched against the student policy because the user did not enter credentials.
B.    The user is using an unsupported browser so the credentials are not working.
C.    The social networking URL was entered into a custom URL category that is blocked in the access policy.
D.    The user is connected to the wrong network and is being blocked by the student policy.
E.    The social networking category is being allowed but the AVC policy is still blocking the website.

Answer: CE

Which five system management protocols are supported by the Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose five.)

A.    SNMPv2c
B.    SNMPv1
C.    SNMPv2
D.    SNMPv3
E.    syslog
F.    SDEE
G.    SMTP

Answer: ABCFG

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Which statement is true when implementing a router with a dynamic public IP address in a crypto map based site-to-site VPN?

A.    The router must be configured with a dynamic crypto map.
B.    Certificates are always used for phase 1 authentication.
C.    The tunnel establishment will fail if the router is configured as a responder only.
D.    The router and the peer router must have NAT traversal enabled.

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Which two EAP types require server side certificates? (Choose two.)

C.    EAP-MD5
D.    LEAP
F.    MSCHAPv2

Continue reading

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Which technology provides forwarding-plane abstraction to support Layer 2 to Layer 7 network services in Cisco Nexus 1000V?

A.    Virtual Service Node
B.    Virtual Service Gateway
C.    Virtual Service Data Path
D.    Virtual Service Agent

Continue reading

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In a Cisco UCS environment, what are the three power types in a power policy? (Choose three.)

A.    backup
B.    grid
C.    redund
D.    n-plus-1
E.    non-redund
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