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QUESTION 41
Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224?

A.    192.168.2.63
B.    192.168.2.62
C.    192.168.2.61
D.    192.168.2.60
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QUESTION 1
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)

A.    Public Cloud
B.    Hybrid Cloud
C.    Open Cloud
D.    Private Cloud
E.    Stack Cloud
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QUESTION 1
Which option can be addressed when using retrospective security techniques?

A.    if the affected host needs a software update
B.    how the malware entered our network
C.    why the malware is still in our network
D.    if the affected system needs replacement

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which CVSSv3 Attack Vector metric value requires the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component?

A.    local
B.    physical
C.    network
D.    adjacent

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is a misuse variety per VERIS enumerations?

A.    snooping
B.    hacking
C.    theft
D.    assault

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)

A.    determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident
B.    ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network
C.    identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network
D.    determining what and how much data may have been affected
E.    identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident

Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?

A.    col[0-9]+our
B.    colo?ur
C.    colou?r
D.    ]a-z]{7}

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which kind of evidence can be considered most reliable to arrive at an analytical assertion?

A.    direct
B.    corroborative
C.    indirect
D.    circumstantial
E.    textual

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You see 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for various pages on one of your webservers. The user agent in the requests contain php code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new php file on the webserver. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?

A.    delivery
B.    reconnaissance
C.    action on objectives
D.    installation
E.    exploitation

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?

A.    rx
B.    regeegex
C.    r(ege)x
D.    rege+x

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which statement about threat actors is true?

A.    They are any company assets that are threatened.
B.    They are any assets that are threatened.
C.    They are perpetrators of attacks.
D.    They are victims of attacks.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which data element must be protected with regards to PCI?

A.    past health condition
B.    geographic location
C.    full name
D.    recent payment amount

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which definition of a process in Windows is true?

A.    running program
B.    unit of execution that must be manually scheduled by the application
C.    database that stores low-level settings for the OS and for certain applications
D.    basic unit to which the operating system allocates processor time Continue reading

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
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QUESTION 21
Which three options are actions to realize the benefits? (Choose three.)

A.    Progress should be measured once the solution is deployed.
B.    Should take into account the relationship with the stakeholder.
C.    Should focus on measurable results.
D.    May be based on assumptions and risks.
E.    Include actions on the way, plus those already identified.

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 22
Which three options are stages of the Benefit Realization Management? (Choose three.)

A.    Benefits accounting.
B.    Benefits identification.
C.    Benefits roles.
D.    Benefit measurement, ranking and prioritization.
E.    Benefits monitoring and review.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 23
Which of the following describes a Viewpoint?

A.    A perspective expressed by one or more managers who share the same or similar role.
B.    A perspective expressed by one or more customers who may or may not share the same or similar role.
C.    The perspective or related set of concerns experienced by a group of stakeholders.
D.    An informal summary of project outcomes used in the management reporting and decision making process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
How might an understanding of business and technology dependencies assist in the development of a phased implementation roadmap?

A.    By enabling the creation of a risk mitigation plan to mitigate or reduce risk.
B.    By determining the level of technical and business support needed to implement each roadmap component.
C.    By helping to determine the most effective order in which each technology component should be implemented.
D.    By focusing the Solution Architect onto the most mission-critical aspects of the solution first.

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which three options are financial challenges when determining the financial value of a Cisco solution? (Choose three.)

A.    Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
B.    Long term and cycles for deployment and adoption.
C.    Cost efficiencies and reductions.
D.    Difficulty to determine NPV.
E.    Increase revenue and margins.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 26
Which option is the best description for NPV?

A.    The adoption of licensed third-party solutions and services may result in a lower NPV.
B.    The NPV takes into consideration the direct and indirect costs of maintaining technology solutions and services.
C.    NPV is factored into the ROI calculation.
D.    The opportunity to reduce NPV is a measureable business outcome and benefit to the customer business.
E.    The NPV of technology solutions and services indicates the monetary value that those solutions bring to the business.

Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which two options are direct financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
Which two options are indirect financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 29
Which two options are true regarding chargeback and showback? (Choose two.)

A.    Chargeback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
B.    Showback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
C.    Chargeback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.
D.    Showback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
What is the purpose of the Solution Business Impact Index?

A.    It is a number that identifies how sooner in the implementation roadmap should the benefits appear.
B.    It is a matrix that lists the solutions and business priorities of the customer, and ranks the solutions according to the impact they generate.
C.    It is a chart to display the importance of Cisco technologies.
D.    It is an alternative to the business outcome-based sales approach.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop Question Continue reading

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QUESTION 21
Which deployment model is the best solution for a simple installation with the most secure connection outside the production network forCisco Meeting Server?

A.    Scaled and Resilient Server Deployment
B.    Single Split Server Deployment
C.    Single Combined Server Deployment
D.    Scaled and Combined Server Deployment

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
How is TIP defined?

A.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323 and SIP endpoint. Whether they are immersive endpoints or non- immersive endpoints.
B.    TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint.
C.    TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used
D.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in cars between immersive endpoints.

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?

A.    TMS Permissions are assigned to groups, and users are added to the groups.
B.    TMS Permissions are directly assigned to individual users.
C.    TMS Permissions are configured in Active Directory, which is then synched to TMS.
D.    TMS Permissions can be imported from the Expressway or CUCM.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?

A.    SDKs specify how software components should interact
B.    APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
C.    SDKs can be used without APIs.
D.    APIs can be used without SDKs.

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which type of API is used to configure settings on Cisco Meeting Server?

A.    REST
B.    XML-RPC
C.    SOAP
D.    XMP-RPC

Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which is a protocol used in the H.323 standard?

A.    802.1
B.    SIP
C.    Q.931
D.    SDP

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/H-323/configuration/15-mt/voi-h323-overview.html#GUID-8130E479-580A-4450-91EA-A1CDCE96548A

QUESTION 27
What is a function of a call control solution?

A.    To make, monitor and maintain calls
B.    To provide an audio and video interface for the user
C.    To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
D.    To schedule calls

Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What do Enterprise Settingson Cisco Spark determine?

A.    Where user information comes from.
B.    BOT integration
C.    API integration
D.    How Connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment.

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which management solution works with endpointsregistered to UCM, VCS and Expressway?

A.    Prime
B.    CMA
C.    CMR
D.    TMS

Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

A.    TelePresence Server
B.    Spark
C.    Cisco Meeting Server
D.    Cisco WebEx

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
Which two attacks target the data link layer in a switched environment? (Choose two.)

A.    VLAN attacks
B.    IP source routing
C.    MAC address floods
D.    DHCP-based IP redirection attacks
E.    Spanning-tree attacks

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QUESTION 61
Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)

A.    collect trace files
B.    stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
C.    view syslog messages
D.    perform backup and restore functions
E.    monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit which AAA attribute is not used by the Cisco WLC running AireOS 8.0 ? Continue reading

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit which two statement about the given IPV6 ZBF configuration are true? (Choose two)

211

A.    It provides backward compability with legacy IPv6 inspection
B.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z1 to Z2.
C.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z2 to Z1.
D.    It inspect TCP,UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic in both direction between z1 and z2.
E.    It passes TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from z1 to z2.
F.    It provide backward compatibility with legacy IPv4 inseption.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 22
In which class of applications security threads does HTTP header manipulation reside?

A.    Session management
B.    Parameter manipulation
C.    Software tampering
D.    Exception managements

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cgisecurity.com/owasp/html/ch11s04.html
Session management doesn’t have anything to do with HTTP header

QUESTION 23
What is the most commonly used technology to establish an encrypted HTTP connection?

A.    the HTTP/1.1 Upgrade header
B.    the HTTP/1.0 Upgrade header
C.    Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 24
What functionality is provided by DNSSEC?

A.    origin authentication of DNS data
B.    data confidentiality of DNS queries and answers
C.    access restriction of DNS zone transfers
D.    storage of the certificate records in a DNS zone file

Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What are the two mechanism that are used to authenticate OSPFv3 packets?(Choose two)

A.    MD5
B.    ESP
C.    PLAIN TEXT
D.    AH
E.    SHA

Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
You have been asked to configure a Cisco ASA appliance in multiple mode with these settings:

(A) You need two customer contexts, named contextA and contextB
(B) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/1 to contextA
(C) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/2 to contextB
(D) The physical interface name for G0/1 within contextA should be “inside”.
(E) All other context interfaces must be viewable via their physical interface names.

If the admin context is already defined and all interfaces are enabled, which command set will complete this configuration?

A.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
B.    context contexta
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextb
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
C.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 invisible
D.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2
E.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible

Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which statement about the cisco anyconnect web security module is true ?

A.    It is VPN client software that works over the SSl protocol.
B.    It is an endpoint component that is used with smart tunnel in a clientless SSL VPN.
C.    It operates as an NAC agent when it is configured with the Anyconnect VPN client.
D.    It is deployed on endpoints to route HTTP traffic to SCANsafe

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the SeND protocol are true? (Choose two)

A.    It uses IPsec as a baseline mechanism
B.    It supports an autoconfiguration mechanism
C.    It must be enabled before you can configure IPv6 addresses
D.    It supports numerous custom neighbor discovery messages
E.    It counters neighbor discovery threats
F.    It logs IPv6-related threats to an external log server

Answer: BE

Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ips/6-1/configuration/guide/cli/cliguide/cli_signature_engines.html#wp1141808

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