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QUESTION 31
Which two options are reasons why we are seeing increasing levels of business-led change? (Choose two.)

A.    Because IT solutions are going through a trend of decreasing costs.
B.    Because business requirements are changing rapidly.
C.    Because the technology led change is too expensive.
D.    Because of the disruption created by the megatrends: cloud, mobility, big data, video. Continue reading

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QUESTION 31
Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)

A.    Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
B.    Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
C.    Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
D.    Use the right verbal and corporate language.
E.    Know your audience and what is of interest to them.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 32
Which option is the most effective way to use best practices or scenarios during the selling process?

A.    in use cases that are relevant to the customer
B.    in business cases used previously
C.    in customer briefing documents
D.    in customer benefits statements

Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Why is it convenient to tie business outcomes and the customer value proposition?

A.    Because it accelerates the time to market of new products and solutions while maintaining a reasonable cost structure.
B.    Because this way you can establish fixed business goals and priorities and facilitate the deployment project management.
C.    To reduce complexity for stakeholders, it is easier for them to describe the benefits and to influence others to gain support.
D.    Because it keeps the value proposition unchanged, it is easier for stakeholders to claim for accountability.

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which option is the main element of a Business Outcomes storyline?

A.    relevancy to customers’ strategy
B.    Cisco differentiators
C.    Cisco products
D.    guaranteed customer ROI

Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)

A.    Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B.    Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C.    Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D.    Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 36
You are working to understand a customer business environment. Which two options are preferred data gathering techniques? (Choose two.)

A.    surveys
B.    interviews
C.    asking competitors
D.    stock analysis reports
E.    social media

Answer: AB

QUESTION 37
Which statement best describes the Cisco sales approach?

A.    Understand the goals of the buyer.
B.    Focus on Cisco technologies already in place.
C.    Focus on fulfilling customer needs and help them generate value through stronger business outcomes.
D.    Pay attention to details that the customer is sharing about their needs.

Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. What approach is frequently used to achieve business outcomes?

A.    Using Next Generation IT to increase service quality. Also, reducing risk, complexity and costs
B.    Refining, enriching or developing & enabling new business processes, new markets, and customer interactions
C.    Taking advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
D.    Improving agility & ability to create or deploy high quality, differentiated, innovative services for end users

Answer: B

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QUESTION 31
Howmany simultaneous HDcalls can be supported on a Cisco MeetingServer 1000?

A.    24
B.    96
C.    108
D.    48 Continue reading

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QUESTION 31
Consider the process that begins with file retrospection, continues to interrogate the file and update its disposition over time, then records the pathway that the software and files take from device to device. This process is an example of which Cisco AMP feature?

A.    file reputation
B.    attack chain weaving
C.    breach hunting
D.    file sandboxing
E.    machine learning

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
How does the Device Trajectory feature work?

A.    It searches for potential threats based on identified activities.
B.    It tracks file behavior across the network to see which devices it enters and exits.
C.    It analyzes the data from file and process retrospection to provide a new level of threat intelligence.
D.    It isolates suspicious files and runs tests to determine their authenticity.
E.    It tracks file behavior on a device to pinpoint the root cause of a compromise.

Answer: E

QUESTION 33
Which Cisco Secure Access solution should you recommend to a customer who is experiencing access complications due to too many policies and too many user groups?

A.    Cisco AnyConnect
B.    Cisco TrustSec
C.    Cisco ISE
D.    Cisco AMP for Endpoints
E.    Cisco site-to-site VPN
F.    Cisco SIO

Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which statement best describes Cisco ISE?

A.    Cisco ISE consolidates user AAA, Security Group Access features, and ScanSafe functionality into one product.
B.    Cisco ISE consolidates user authentication with NAC components into one solution.
C.    Cisco ISE provides AAA features, guest provisioning, and device profiling features in the base feature set; link encryption policies, host posture, and security group access require the advanced feature set.
D.    Cisco ISE combines the capabilities of Cisco Secure ACS and Cisco Virtual Security Gateway into one product.

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which two statements about the capabilities of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client for Windows are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It supports always-on connectivity by automatically establishing a VPN connection as needed. If multiple VPN gateways exist, load sharing occurs in a Round-robin fashion.
B.    It supports session persistence after hibernation or standby.
C.    Trusted Network Detection allows the connection to be established without any user intervention (authentication), if the client is located inside the office.
D.    It is exclusively configured by central policies; no local configuration is possible.
E.    The order of policy enforcement is as follows: dynamic access policy, user attributes, tunnel group, group policy attributes.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 36
Which statement about wireless intrusion prevention and rogue access point detection is true?

A.    A local mode access point provides power to wireless clients.
B.    A monitor mode access point performs background scanning in order to detect rogue access points.
C.    A monitor mode access point is dedicated to scanning (listen-only).
D.    A monitor mode access point can distribute a white list of all known access points.
E.    Any access point that broadcasts the same RF group name or is part of the same mobility group is considered to be a rogue access point.

Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which Cisco technology solution can resolve a customer’s inability to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources, while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?

A.    Cisco TrustSec
B.    Cisco Data Center Management Policy Implementation
C.    Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
D.    Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
E.    Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F.    Cisco Secure Data Center
G.    Cisco Security Intelligence Operations

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which two advanced malware protection features are available on Cisco AMP for Content? (Choose two.)

A.    URL filtering
B.    retrospective security
C.    attack chain weaving
D.    breach hunting
E.    trajectory
F.    behavioral indications of compromise

Answer: AB

QUESTION 39
Which option best describes granular app control using application visibility and control?

A.    blocking harmful sites based on content, such as pokerstars.com
B.    blocking World of Warcraft but allowing Google+
C.    blocking Facebook games but allowing Facebook posts
D.    blocking Twitter to increase employee productivity

Answer: C

QUESTION 40
The first phase of email security analyzes “who-what-where-when-how” information and context-based policies during which component of threat detection?

A.    antivirus defense
B.    advanced malware protection for email
C.    outbreak filters
D.    data loss prevention
E.    encryption
F.    antispam defense

Answer: F

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QUESTION 71
Cisco Finesse supports the use of custom call variable layouts. How does the agent desktop determine which layout to use?

A.    The name of the layout is passed to the agent desktop via a keyword variable that is named user layout.
B.    The layout is associated to the team under Team Resources.
C.    The layout is associated to the CSQ definition.
D.    The layout is associated to the desktop layout under Team Resources.

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QUESTION 31
Your customer wants to configure LSCs and asks for specific information about which number to configure in the text box right next to the “Number of Attempts”. Which statement is true?

A.    The default number of attempts is 100.
B.    A value of 2 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC, the AP attempts to Join the Cisco WLC using the default certificate
C.    A value of 255 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC,the AP does not attempt to join the Cisco WLC using the default .
D.    A value of 3 means that if a user fails to authenticate,the user is disconnected after three retries. Continue reading

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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given command sequence? Continue reading

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QUESTION 31
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)

A.    XML
B.    RIB
C.    FIB
D.    QoS
E.    PFI

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QUESTION 41
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing loT capabities? (Choose three.)

A.    Layered Security Appoach.
B.    Place security above functionality.
C.    Define lifecycle controls for loT devices.
D.    Privacy impact Assessment.
E.    Change passwords every 90 days.
F.    Implement Intrusion Detection Systems on loT devices.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 42
Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?

A.    offset-list
B.    neighbor
C.    address-family
D.    stub

Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?

431

A.    broadcast
B.    Ethernet
C.    multipoint
D.    point-to-point

Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which option describes the characteristics of a public Infrastructure as a Serveice cloud service model?

A.    It is a way of delivering cloud-computing infrastructure (servers, storage, network, and operating systems) as an on-demand service.
B.    It is a cloud service where the underlying hardware is managed by the cloud service provider.
C.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software applications.
D.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software operating systems.

Answer: A

QUESTION 45
Which effect of configuring the passive-interface S0/0 command under the EIGRP routing process is true?

A.    It prevents EIGRP neighbor relationships from being formed over interface S0/0.
B.    It configures interface S0/0 to send hello packets with the passive-interface bit set.
C.    It configures interface S0/0 to suppress all outgoing routing updates.
D.    It configures interface S0/0 to reject all incoming routing updates.

Answer: A

QUESTION 46
What is the default IS-IS interface metric on a Cisco router?

A.    255
B.    64
C.    10
D.    128

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Which two items must be defined to capture packet data with the Embedded Packet Capture feature? (Choose two.)

A.    the capture rate
B.    the capture point
C.    the capture buffer
D.    the buffer memory size
E.    the capture filter
F.    the capture file export location

Answer: BC

QUESTION 48
When you configure an IPv6 IPsec tunnel, which two fields can represent the ISAKMP identity of a peer? (Choose two)

A.    Authentication method
B.    DH group identifier
C.    Hostname
D.    IPv6 address
E.    Encryption algorithm

Answer: CD

QUESTION 49
Which action enables passive interfaces in RIPv6(RIPng)?

A.    Use “passive-interface default” under the routing process.
B.    Enable passive-interface on interface configuration.
C.    passive interface are not supported in RIPng.
D.    Enable passive-interface for each interface under the routing process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 50
Which statement is true about IGMP?

A.    Multicast sources send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM join message that is then sent to the RP.
B.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then forwards the IGMP messages to the RP.
C.    IGMP messages are encapsulated in PIM register messages and sent to the RP.
D.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to signal their interest to receive traffic for specific multicast groups.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 41
Which two statements are requirements regarding hunt group options for B-ACD implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers? (Choose two.)

A.    The ephone hunt group is mandatory.
B.    Either the ephone hunt group or the voice hunt group is acceptable.
C.    Hunt group members must be SCCP IP phones.
D.    Hunt group members can include both SCCP or SIP IP phones.
E.    Hunt group members must be SIP IP phones.
F.    The member hunting mechanism must be set to sequential.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
The ephone hunt group is mandatory, and while ephone hunt groups only support Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, a voice hunt group supports either a Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone or a Cisco Unified SIP IP phone
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_v1ht.html

QUESTION 42
Which call hunt mechanism is only supported by the voice hunt group in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router?

A.    sequential
B.    peer
C.    longest idle
D.    parallel
E.    overlay

Answer: D
Explanation:
Parallel Hunt-Group, allows a user to dial a pilot number that rings 2-10 different extensions simultaneously. The first extension to answer gets connected to the caller while all other extensions will stop ringing. A timeout value can be set whereas if none of the extensions answer before the timer expires, all the extensions will stop ringing and one final destination number will ring indefinitely instead. The final number could be another voice hunt-group pilot number or mailbox The following features are supported for Voice Hunt-Group:
Calls can be forwarded to Voice Hunt-Group
Calls can be transferred to Voice Hunt-Group
Member of Voice Hunt-Group can be SCCP, ds0-group, pri-group, FXS or SIP phone/trunk
Max member of Voice Hunt-Group will be 32

QUESTION 43
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express ephone button configuration separator enables overflow lines when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call?

A.    o
B.    c
C.    w
D.    x
E.    :

Answer: D
Explanation:
x expansion/overflow, define additional expansion lines that are used when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call.

QUESTION 44
Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers.
B.    Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair.
C.    It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs.
D.    Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs.
E.    It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy.
F.    The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. From this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router, how many bearer channels are available to carry voice traffic?

451

A.    91
B.    92
C.    93
D.    94
E.    95

Answer: D
Explanation:
In NFAS one channel is used for signaling so according to this we will have 94 channel for with bearer capability.

QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router is fully functional, what will the controller T1 1/1 D-channel status be in the output of the show isdn status command?

461

A.    MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED
B.    TEI_ASSIGNED
C.    AWAITING_ESTABLISHMENT
D.    STANDBY
E.    INITIALIZED

Answer: B
Explanation:
TEI_ASSIGNED, which indicates that the PRI does not exchange Layer 2 frames with the switch. Use the show controller t1 x command to first check the controller t1 circuit, and verify whether it is clean (that is, it has no errors) before you troubleshoot ISDN Layer 2 problem with the debug isdn q921.

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. In an effort to troubleshoot a caller ID delivery problem, a customer emailed you the voice port configuration on a Cisco IOS router. Which type of voice port is it?

471

A.    FXS
B.    E&M
C.    BRI
D.    FXO
E.    DID

Answer: D

QUESTION 48
The iLBC codec operates at 38 bytes per sample per 20-millisecond interval. What is its codec bit rate in kilobits per second?

A.    6.3
B.    13.3
C.    15.2
D.    16
E.    24

Answer: C
Explanation:
The internet Low Bit Rate Codec (iLBC) is designed for narrow band speech and results in a payload bit rate of 13.33 kbits per second for 30-millisecond (ms) frames and 15.20 kbits per second for 20 ms frames. When the codec operates at block lengths of 20 ms, it produces 304 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952. Similarly, for block lengths of 30 ms it produces 400 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952.The iLBC has built-in error correction functionality to provide better performance in networks with higher packet loss

QUESTION 49
Assume 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and a 40-millisecond voice payload, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for five VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link?

A.    87 kb/s
B.    134 kb/s
C.    102.6 kb/s
D.    77.6 kb/s
E.    71.3 kb/s

Answer: A
Explanation:
Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.

QUESTION 50
Assume 20 bytes of voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and the IP, UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for six VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled?

A.    80.4 kb/s
B.    91.2 kb/s
C.    78.4 kb/s
D.    69.6 kb/s
E.    62.4 kb/s

Answer: D
Explanation:
Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.

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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Your junior design engineer presents this configuration design. What is the next-hop router for CE3, and why?

311

A.    CE1. BGP weight is higher than CE2.
B.    CE2. EBGP administrative distance is lower than RIP.
C.    CE2. The link between CE2 and PE1 has more bandwidth than CE1-to-PE1.
D.    CE1. HSRP on CE1 is in active state.

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
A service provider creates a network design that runs MPLS in its WAN backbone using OSPF as the IGP routing protocol. What would be two effects of additionally implementing MPLS-TE? (Choose two.)

A.    MPLS-TE is required to reroute traffic within less than 1 second in case of a link failure inside the
backbone.
B.    MPLS-TE is required to route different MPLS QoS service classes through different paths.
C.    MPLS-TE and OSPF cannot be used together inside one MPLS network.
D.    MPLS-TE cannot use OSPF for the traffic path calculation.
E.    MPLS-TE is required to create backup paths independently from the IGP.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 33
Which two mechanisms ensure that a network design provides fast path failure detection? (Choose two.)

A.    BFD
B.    fast hello packets
C.    UDLD
D.    IP Cisco Express Forwarding

Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)

A.    reduces processing load
B.    provides sub-second convergence
C.    improves network stability
D.    prevents routing loops
E.    quickly detects network failures

Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
You are evaluating convergence characteristics of various interior gateway protocols for a new network design. Which technology allows link-state routing protocols to calculate paths to destination prefixes that are functionally similar to feasible successors in Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol?

A.    Incremental Shortest Path First
B.    Cisco Multiprotocol Label Switching Traffic Engineering Fast Reroute
C.    Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
D.    partial route calculation
E.    Fast-Flooding

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
You are hired to design a solution that will improve network availability for users on a campus network with routed access. If the budget limits you to three components, which three components would you recommend in your design proposal? (Choose three.)

A.    redundant power supplies in the access routers
B.    standby route processors for SSO in the core routers
C.    standby route processors for SSO in the distribution routers
D.    standby route processors for SSO in the access routers
E.    replace copper links between devices with fiber links

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 37
You are designing a network to support data, voice and video. Which two main factors will you address to improve network convergence? (Choose two.)

A.    event propagation delay
B.    failure detection delay
C.    forwarding engine update delay
D.    routing table recalculation delay

Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. This diagram depicts the design of a small network that will run EIGRP on R1 and R2, and EIGRP Stub on R3. In which two ways will this network be impacted if there is link instability between R1 and R2? (Choose two.)

381

A.    R1 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R2 and R3.
B.    R3 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R2.
C.    R2 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R3.
D.    R3 will be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.
E.    R3 will not be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.

Answer: BE

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QUESTION 31
Which show command will show whether a WLAN is locally or centrally switched on a Cisco Wireless Lan Controller?

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