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QUESTION 21
You are building a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services multidimensional model over a SQL Server database.
In a cube named OrderAnalysis, there is a standard cube dimension named Stock Item.
This dimension has the following attributes:
Users report that the attributes Stock Item Key and Photo are distracting and are not providing any value.
They have asked for the attributes to be removed. However, these attributes are needed by other cubes.
You need to hide the specified attributes from the end users of the OrderAnalysis cube. You do not want to change the structure of the dimension.
Which change should you make to the properties for the Stock Item Key and Photo attributes?

A.    Set the AttributeHierarchyVisible property to False.
B.    Set the AttributeHierarchyEnabledproperty to False.
C.    Set the AttributeVisibility property to Hidden.
D.    Set the Usage property to Regular.
E.    Set the AttributeHierarchyDisplayFolder property to Hidden.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The value of the AttributeHierarchyEnabled property determines whether an attribute hierarchy is created. If this property is set to False, the attribute hierarchy is not created and the attribute cannot be used as a level in a user hierarchy; the attribute hierarchy exists as a member property only. However, a disabled attribute hierarchy can still be used to order the members of another attribute. If the value of the AttributeHierarchyEnabled property is set to True, the value of the AttributeHierarchyVisible property determines whether the attribute hierarchy is visible independent of its use in a user-defined hierarchy.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms166717(v=sql.110).aspx

QUESTION 22
You are optimizing a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) multidimensional model over a SQL Server database.
You have a table named City which has several dimensions that do not contain a space in their names.
One dimension is named SalesTerritory rather than Sales Territory.
You need to ensure that Report developers can drag the attribute name to the report rather than having to re-label the attributes by implementing spaces.
You must minimize administrative effort and not break any upstream processes.
What should you do?

A.    In the SQL Server database, run the system procedure sp_rename to rename the columns in the base tables with the target name.
B.    In SQL Server Management Studio, navigate to the City table, expand the columns, press F2, and rename the columns in the base tables.
C.    In the SQL Server database, implement a SYNONYM.
D.    In the SQL Server database, implement a view over the City table that aliases the columns in the tables.

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You administer a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular model for a travel agency that specializes in vacation packages. Vacation bookings and packages are stored in a SQL Server database. You use the model as the basis for customer emails that highlight vacation packages that are currently underbooked, or projected to be underbooked.
The company plans to incorporate cruise ship vacation packages. Cruise ship vacation packages include new features such as region availability and cruise line specialties that require changes to the tabular model.
You must ensure that the tabular model reflects the new vacation packages.
You need to configure the tabular data model.
What should you do?

A.    Ensure that DirectQuery is enabled for the model.
B.    Ensure that DirectQuery is disabled for the model.
C.    Ensure that the Transactional Deployment property is set to True.
D.    Ensure that the Transactional Deployment property is set to False.
E.    Process the model in Process Full mode.
F.    Process the model in Process Data mode.
G.    Process the model in Process Defrag mode.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Process Full processes an Analysis Services object and all the objects that it contains. When Process Full is executed against an object that has already been processed, Analysis Services drops all data in the object, and then processes the object. This kind of processing is required when a structural change has been made to an object, for example, when an attribute hierarchy is added, deleted, or renamed.

QUESTION 24
Hotspot Question
A company has a multidimensional cube that is used for analyzing sales data.
You add a new measure named Transaction ?Total Including Tax and include the Supplier, Payment Method, and Transaction Type dimensions in the data model. The Transaction ?Total Including Tax measure uses the existing Customer and Date dimensions.
When users have queried the new measure in the past, they saw results as shown in the existing query output exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

241

The overall total is incorrectly displayed on every row. In addition, the results are no longer formatted correctly.
The query result should appear as shown in the desired query output exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

242

You need to ensure the table is displayed correctly.
What should you do? Use drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

243
Answer:

244
Explanation:
Box 1: Enter a custom MeasureExpression property on the measure
Calculated measures use MDX expressions to supply their values, instead of binding to columns in a data source. The Expression property contains the MDX expression used to supply the values for a Measure only if the Measure is a calculated measure. Otherwise, this property contains an empty string (“”).

QUESTION 25
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) instance that is configured to use multidimensional mode. You create the following cube:

251

Users need to be able to analyze sales by product and color.
You need to create the dimension.
Which relationship type should you use between the InternetSales table and the new dimension?

A.    no relationship
B.    regular
C.    fact
D.    referenced
E.    many-to-many
F.    data mining

Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Hotspot Question

You are a database administrator in a company that uses Microsoft SharePoint Server for all intranet sites. You are responsible for the installation of new database server instances.
You must install Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Server (SSAS) to support deployment of the following projects. You develop both projects by using SQL Server Data Tools.
You need to install the appropriate services to support both projects.
What should you do? In the table below, select the appropriate services for each project. NOTE: Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.

261
Answer:

262
Explanation:
Project1:
Project2: Multidimensional
Note: Analysis Services can be installed in one of three server modes: Multidimensional and Data Mining (default), Power Pivot for SharePoint, and Tabular.

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QUESTION 1
You are reviewing the design of a customer dimension table in an existing data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?

A.    Add StartDate and EndDate columns to the customer dimension.
B.     Add an IsCurrent column to the customer dimension.
C.    Enable Snapshot Isolation on the data warehouse.
D.    Add CurrentValue and PreviousValue columns to the customer dimension. Continue reading

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Case Study 1 – VanArsdel, Ltd (Question 1 – Question 8)
Overview
VanArsdel, Ltd. builds skyscrapers, subways, and bridges.
VanArsdel is a leader in using technology to do construction better. Continue reading

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center. Continue reading

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QUESTION 1
Given:

11

Which option enables the code to compile?

12

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragment:

21

What is the result?

A.    [Robb, Rick, Bran]
B.    [Robb, Rick]
C.    [Robb, Bran, Rick, Bran]
D.    An exception is thrown at runtime.

Answer: A
Explanation:
After adding elements to names we have a list with four elements and element “Bran” repeated.
After removing element “Bran” we have a list with three elements [Robb, Rick, Bran].
remove method removes the first occurrence of the specified element from this list, if it is present. If the list does not contain the element, it is unchanged.
https://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/api/java/util/ArrayList.html#remove-java.lang.Object-

QUESTION 3
Given:

31

What is the result?

A.    C B A
B.    C
C.    A B C
D.    Compilation fails at line n1 and line n2

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given:

41

What is the result?

A.    3 4 5 6
B.    3 4 3 6
C.    5 4 5 6
D.    3 6 4 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since variable i is static, it is shared by all instances of X. When code executes x2.i = 5, x1.i = 5 too.
Since variable j isn’t static, each instance of X has its own copy of j.

QUESTION 5
Given the code fragment:

51

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 3, enables the code to print 10:20?

A.    int[] array = new int[2];
B.    int[] array;
array = int[2];
C.    int array = new int[2];
D.    int array [2] ;

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:

61

What is the result?

A.    A B C Work done
B.    A B C D Work done
C.    A Work done
D.    Compilation fails

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism?

A.    Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B.    Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C.    Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D.    Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E.    Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
B is false. Standard exceptions not cover all possible errors.
D is false. Exceptions don’t have to be handled in the method in which they occurred.

QUESTION 8
Given the code from the Greeting.Java file:

81

Which set of commands prints Hello Duke in the console?

82

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: C
Explanation:
Source code file names must have .java suffixes to compile with javac
We interpret or run the program with “java <class name without suffix> arguments”
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/javac.html
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/java.html

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QUESTION 1
View the exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table. Continue reading

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QUESTION 1
Examine the following commands:

# groupadd project
# mkdir /usr/share/project
# chown -r root.project /usr/share/project
# qpasswd -a scott project
# qpasswd -a foo project
# chmod 2775 /usr/share/project

Based on the commands, which statement is correct?

A.    Any new file created in the /usr/share/project folder by user scott will not be possible for foo to modify it.
B.    All members of the project group need the administrator’s help to change the file permission every time users write new files in the /usr/share/project folder.
C.    Files created by all members of the project group in the /usr/share/project folder will get the same group permission as the folder itself.
D.    The chmod command can only take a tree-digit argument.

Answer: A
Explanation:
*A permission of “2755” for a directory means that everyone has read and execute permission, while the file owner and members of the file’s group additionally have write permission. And any files or subdirectories created in that directory will inherit the parent directory’s group id.
Incorrect:
Not D: chmod 2775 is a valid command.

QUESTION 2
View the exhibit.

21

Examine the grub.conf file snippet in the Exhibit. Which statement is true if your Linux system boots by using this grub.conf file?

A.    GRUB will boot, by default, the first kernel entry of this grub.conf file.
B.    GRUB will prompt you to select the kernel to be booted because the default parameter is set to 0.
C.    GRUB will boot the kernel specified in the inittab file of the system.
D.    GRUB will boot, by default, the second kernel entry of this grub.conf file.

Answer: A
Explanation:
According the grub .conf file you have got 8 seconds to choose whether to boot the first entry.Now if you want to change, and let say you want the second grub entry as booting system by default, justchange the line:default=0 bydefault=1

QUESTION 3
The DBA tells you that the system is not overloaded but you can tell that the system us actively swapping. What command would you run to show this information to the DBA?

A.    # iotop
B.    # iostat 5 10
C.    # cat /proc/meminfo
D.    # vmstat 5 10

Answer: B
Explanation:
*iostat – Report Central Processing Unit (CPU) statistics and input/output statistics for devices, partitions and network filesystems (NFS).
*The iostat command is used for monitoring system input/output device loading by observing the time the devices are active in relation to their average transfer rates. The iostat command generates reports that can be used to change system configuration to better balance the input/output load between physical disks.
Incorrect:
Not A: Related to kernel and processes.
*iotop – simple top-like I/O monitor
*iotop watches I/O usage information output by the Linux kernel (requires 2.6.20 or later) and displays a table of current I/O usage by processes or threads on the system.
*iotop displays columns for the I/O bandwidth read and written by each process/thread during the sampling period. It also displays the percentage of time the thread/process spent while swapping in and while waiting on I/O. For each process, its I/O priority (class/level) is shown. In addition, the total I/O bandwidth read and written during the sampling period is displayed at the top of the interface.
Not C: related to RAM usage.
*The entries in the /proc/meminfo can help explain what’s going on with your memory usage, if you know how to read it.
*High-Level Statistics
MemTotal: Total usable ram (i.e. physical ram minus a few reserved bits and the kernel binary code)
MemFree: Is sum of LowFree+HighFree (overall stat) MemShared: 0; is here for compat reasons but always zero. Buffers: Memory in buffer cache. mostly useless as metric nowadays Cached: Memory in the pagecache (diskcache) minus SwapCache SwapCache: Memory that once was swapped out, is swapped back in but still also is in the swapfile (if memory is needed it doesn’t need to be swapped out AGAIN because it is already in the swapfile. This saves I/O)
Not D:vmstat – Report virtual memory statistics

QUESTION 4
View the cron job example below. How often will this cron job run?

0 */ 5 * * * command

A.    every 5 minutes
B.    every 5 hours
C.    every 5 days
D.    every 5th month

Answer: B
Explanation:
Execute a cron job every 5 Hours
The second field is for hours. If you specify * in this field, it runs every hour. If you specify */5 in the 2nd field, it runs every 5 hours as shown below.
0 */5 * * * /home/ramesh/backup.sh

QUESTION 5
What happens when the following command is run?

# authconfig – – passalgo = md5 – – update

A.    It produces the MD5 checksum of the input data.
B.    It configures the MD5 checksum for newly authored documents
C.    It converts the stdio input to MD5 algorithm.
D.    It changes the user password hashing algorithm to MD5.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Identify the two kernels that are shipped with Oracle Linux 6.

A.    Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel
B.    Unbeatable Enterprise Kernel 11g
C.    Red Hat Compatible Kernel
D.    Linux Compatible Kernel
E.    Solaris 11 Container Kernel

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Oracle Linux 6 ships with two sets of kernel packages:
*Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel [kernel-uek-2.6.32-100.28.5.el6] Only available on the x86_64 (64 bit) platform
Installed and booted by default
*Red Hat compatible Kernel [kernel-2.6.32-71.el6] Installed by default

QUESTION 7
You have to find the default run level of your Oracle Linux system.
Which file will help you find this information?

A.    /boot/grub/grub.conf
B.    /etc/inittab
C.     /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit
D.     /etc/rc.local
E.     /etc/rc.d/init.d

Answer: B
Explanation:
The default run level is specified in the /etc/inittab file.

QUESTION 8
On your Oracle Linux 6 system, you have to configure the eth0 network interface to 100 MB/sec, half duplex without trying to autonegotiate. Which command will help you configure this requirement?

A.    # ifconfig eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
B.    # ethtool interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
C.    # ifconfig interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
D.    # ethtool -seth0speed 100 autoneg off duplex half

Answer: D
Explanation:
When I have a device that is acting up, I tend to run: ethtool ethX, check the Supported link modes, the Link partner advertised link modes and the actual speed and Duplex. If my Supported link mode is set low (say 10/Half for some reason) but my switch supports 1000baseT/Full then I’ll use ethtool -s ethX to change my ethernet settings to 1000baseT/Full. Just about anything you see from: ethtool ethX, can be changed with ethtool -S ethX. In this case you would use the following:
ethtool -S eth0 speed 1000 duplex full autoneg on

QUESTION 9
As a system administrator, you run the system-config-network tool and make changes to the configuration. You change the hostname and the DNS search path settings. Which two files will these changes be written into?

A.    “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
B.    “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “etc/nsswitch.conf/” files
C.    “/etc/sysconfig/netconfig” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
D.    “etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are correct about the Oracle ASMLib library?

A.    Oracle ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management (ASM) feature.
B.    To use ASMLib library, you have to recompile it first for the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel.
C.    Oracle Automatic Storage management (ASM) requires Oracle ASMLib library to function completely.
D.    Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is included in the Unbreakable Kernel.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A (not C):ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management feature of the Oracle Database.
ASMLib allows an Oracle Database using ASM more efficient and capable access to the disk groups it is using.
D (not B):The Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is now included in the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel. No driver package needs to be installed when using this kernel.

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true regarding Flex ASM on a four-node cluster consisting of three-hub nodes and a leaf node?

A.    An ASM instance and database instances can coexist on the same hub node.
B.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any leaf node.
C.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
D.    A database instance on a leaf node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
E.    A database instance on a hub node uses an ASM instance as an I/O server when requesting I/O todiskgroups.
F.    ASM Cluster File System (ASFS) can only be deployed on hub nodes.

Answer: ACF
Explanation:
Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD). However application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Note:
Hub Nodes are connected among them via private network and have direct access to the shared storage just like previous versions. These nodes are the ones that access the Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD) directly.
Leaf Nodes are lighter and are not connected among them, neither accesses the shared storage like the Hub Nodes. Each Leaf Node communicates with the Hub Node that is attached to, and it is connected to the cluster via the Hub Node that is linked to.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about initialization parameters for Clustered ASM instances?

A.    A change to ASM_DISKSTRING requires a restart of all ASM instances for the change to take effect.
B.    ASM_POWER_LIMIT controls he number of RDBMS instances that can access a disk group while it isbeing rebalanced.
C.    The ASM_DISKGROUP parameter is optional.
D.    The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is ASM.
E.    The maximum value of ASM_POWER_LIMIT is 1024.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
C: The default value of the ASM_DISKGROUPS parameter is a NULL string. If the parameter value is NULL or is not specified, then ASM does not mount any disk groups.
E: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
D: The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is RDBMS.
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asminst.htm#BHCEHJGA

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true concerning diagnostic components and requirements of Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    There is one ologgered service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
B.    The Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database must run on a hub node if Flex Clusters areused.
C.    There is one osysmond service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
D.    The oclumon utility may be used to get and set parameters for the cluster health monitor (CHM) repository.
E.    The diagcollection.pl script must be run from the Grid home directory as the Grid infrastructure owner.
F.    The clusterware log files are stored inside the Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database usedby the cluster health monitor (CHM).

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: The Oracle Grid Infrastructure Management Repository Runs on one node in the cluster.This must be a Hub Node in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration.
C: There is one system monitor service on every node. The system monitor service (osysmond) is a real-time, monitoring and operating system metric collection service that sends the data to the cluster logger service.
D: Use the oclumon manage command to view and change configuration information from the system monitor service.
Syntax
   oclumon manage -repos {{changeretentiontime time} | {changerepossize
   memory_size}} | -get {key1 [key2 …] | alllogger [-details] | mylogger [-details]}
Where changerepossize memory_size: Use this option to change the CHM repository space limit to a specified number of MB.
Note: The OCLUMON command-line tool is included with CHM and you can use it to query the CHM repository to display node-specific metrics for a specified time period. You can also use OCLUMON to perform miscellaneous administrative tasks, such as changing the debug levels, querying the version of CHM, and changing the metrics database size.
Incorrect Answers:
E: You can collect CHM data from any node in the cluster by running the Grid_home/bin/diagcollection.pl script on the node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/troubleshoot.htm#CHDIGCEC

QUESTION 4
PROD1, PROD2 and PROD3 are three active instances of the PROD database.
Examine these commands executed on PROD1:

SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=200 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’*’; SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=100 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’PROD1′;

Which statement is true?

A.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for all instances of PROD.
B.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 100 for all instances of PROD.
C.    The second statement returns an error because this parameter must be identical for all isntances.
D.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for PROD2 and PROD3 and 100 for PROD1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
First SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS is set to 200 for all instances, then it is set to 100 for PROD1.

QUESTION 5
Which three events occur when a hub node fails in an Oracle Clusterware 12c Flex Cluster?

A.    The hub node is evicted from the cluster
B.    Leaf nodes connected to the failing hub node are reconnected to a surviving hub node without servicedisruption.
C.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving hub nodes.
D.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving leaf nodes.
E.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes.
F.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving leaf nodes.
G.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes or leafnodes, or both.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
F, G: Leaf Nodes are different from standard Oracle Grid Infrastructure nodes, in that they do not require direct access to shared storage, but instead request data through Hub Nodes. Hub Nodes can run in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration without having any Leaf Nodes as cluster member nodes, but Leaf Nodes must be members of a cluster that includes at least one Hub Node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/bigcluster.htm#CWADD92409

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about Flex ASM in a Flex Cluster?

A.    Oracle databases from releases older than 12c cannot use Flex ASM.
B.    ASFS may only be configured on a hub node running an ASM instance.
C.    Instances of ASM-based databases on hosts that have no ASM instance running, require Flex ASM.
D.    Flex ASM requires that I/Os requests be sent through an ASM Proxy Instance, regardless of database andASM instance placement in a cluster.
E.    Hub nodes with connections from multiple leaf nodes must run an ASM instance.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
B: Oracle Automatic Storage Management Cluster File System (Oracle ACFS) can only be run on the hub nodes, not the leaf nodes. Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD).
E: application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Oracle Flex ASM can be implemented in two ways:
Pure 12c Flex ASM (Same Version)
Both Grid Infrastructure (GI) and Database running on Oracle 12c
Pre Oracle 12c Mixed (Different Versions)
As normal ASM instance will run on each node with Flex configuration to support pre 12c database. The compatibility parameter of ASM disk group is used to manage the compatibility of between and among database instances. Advantage of this approach is that if an Oracle 12c database instance loses connectivity with an ASM instance, then the database connections will failover to another ASM instance on a different server. This failover is achieved by setting the cardinality to all.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 7
Which three statements are true about the cluster file system archiving scheme?

A.    Each node can read only the archived logs written by itself.
B.    Nodes don’t use network to archive files.
C.    Each node can read the archive redo log files of the other nodes.
D.    Each node archives to a uniquely named local directory.
E.    Each node archives to a local directory with the same path on each cluster node.
F.    Each node writes to a single location on the cluster file system while archiving the redo log files.

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
Initialization Parameter Settings for the Cluster File System Archiving Scheme
In the cluster file system scheme, each node archives to a directory that is identified with the same name on all instances within the cluster database (/arc_dest, in the following example). To configure this directory, set values for the LOG_ARCH_DEST_1 parameter, as shown in the following example:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/RACAD/rman.htm#RACAD320

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true regarding multitenant architecture for RAC databases?

A.    One UNDO tablespace for each PDB is required.
B.    One UNDO tablespace for each instance is required.
C.    PDBs can have local temporary tablespaces.
D.    All the containers share the same SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces.
E.    You can open one, several, or all PDBs on one, several, or all CDB instances.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
B: For an Oracle RAC CDB, one active undo tablespace exists for each instance.
C: From a physical perspective, a CDB has basically the same structure as a non-CDB, except that each PDB has its own set of tablespaces (including its own SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces) and data files.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/cdblogic.htm#CNCPT89268

QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true about ASM alias names?

A.    ASM files created using an alias name are not OMF files even if OMF is enabled.
B.    Alias file names cannot be used together with templates when creating tablespaces.
C.    ASM files created using an alias name are OMF files even if OMF is not enabled.
D.    Alias names can be stored only in user-defined directories.
E.    ASM files created using an alias name also have a fully qualified name and can be accessed by eithername.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true concerning activation of a user-defined policy in Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    When a policy is first created, it is initially active.
B.    When a policy is activated, nodes may be reassigned to server pools based on the policy definition.
C.    An administrator-defined policy may be activated using the srvctl utility.
D.    When a policy is activated, resources cannot be automatically started to comply with the policy definition.
E.    When a policy is first created, it is initially inactive.
F.    When a policy is activated, resources can be automatically stopped to comply with the policy definition.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
BE: You can activate policies when necessary, prompting Oracle Clusterware to reconfigure a server pool according to each policy’s configuration.
C: The following command activates the DayTime policy:
  $ crsctl modify policyset -attr “LAST_ACTIVATED_POLICY=DayTime”
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/pbmgmt.htm#CWADD92594

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Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).

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The security administrator needs to manage traffic on a layer 3 device to support FTP from a new remote site. Which of the following would need to be implemented?

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following is a definition of an RFP?

A.    A document sent to potential vendors to solicit a bid for a project
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