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Which of the following monitors network traffic in real time?

A.    network-based IDS
B.    host-based IDS
C.    application-based IDS
D.    firewall-based IDS

Answer: A
This type of IDS is called a network-based IDS because monitors network traffic in real time.

A host-based IDS is resident on which of the following?

A.    On each of the critical hosts
B.    decentralized hosts
C.    central hosts
D.    bastion hosts

Answer: A
A host-based IDS is resident on a host and reviews the system and event logs in order to detect an attack on the host and to determine if the attack was successful. All critical serves should have a Host Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) installed. As you are well aware, network based IDS cannot make sense or detect pattern of attacks within encrypted traffic. A HIDS might be able to detect such attack after the traffic has been decrypted on the host. This is why critical servers should have both NIDS and HIDS.


A HIDS will monitor all or part of the dynamic behavior and of the state of a computer system. Much as a NIDS will dynamically inspect network packets, a HIDS might detect which program accesses what resources and assure that (say) a word-processor hasn\’t suddenly and inexplicably started modifying the system password-database. Similarly a HIDS might look at the state of a system, its stored information, whether in RAM, in the file-system, or elsewhere; and check that the contents of these appear as expected.

One can think of a HIDS as an agent that monitors whether anything/anyone – internal or external – has circumvented the security policy that the operating system tries to enforce. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Host-based_intrusion_detection_system

Which of the following usually provides reliable, real-time information without consuming network or host resources?

A.    network-based IDS
B.    host-based IDS
C.    application-based IDS
D.    firewall-based IDS

Answer: A
A network-based IDS usually provides reliable, real-time information without consuming network or host resources.

The fact that a network-based IDS reviews packets payload and headers enable which of the following?

A.    Detection of denial of service
B.    Detection of all viruses
C.    Detection of data corruption
D.    Detection of all password guessing attacks

Answer: A
Because a network-based IDS reviews packets and headers, denial of service attacks can also be detected.

This question is an easy question if you go through the process of elimination. When you see an answer containing the keyword: ALL It is something a give away that it is not the proper answer. On the real exam you may encounter a few question where the use of the work ALL renders the choice invalid. Pay close attention to such keyword.

The following are incorrect answers:

Even though most IDSs can detect some viruses and some password guessing attacks, they cannot detect ALL viruses or ALL password guessing attacks. Therefore these two answers are only detractors.
Unless the IDS knows the valid values for a certain dataset, it can NOT detect data corruption.

Which of the following reviews system and event logs to detect attacks on the host and determine if the attack was successful?

A.    host-based IDS
B.    firewall-based IDS
C.    bastion-based IDS
D.    server-based IDS

Answer: A
A host-based IDS can review the system and event logs in order to detect an attack on the host and to determine if the attack was successful.

What would be considered the biggest drawback of Host-based Intrusion Detection systems (HIDS)?

A.    It can be very invasive to the host operating system
B.    Monitors all processes and activities on the host system only
C.    Virtually eliminates limits associated with encryption
D.    They have an increased level of visibility and control compared to NIDS

Answer: A
The biggest drawback of HIDS, and the reason many organizations resist its use, is that it can be very invasive to the host operating system. HIDS must have the capability to monitor all processes and activities on the host system and this can sometimes interfere with normal system processing.

HIDS versus NIDS

A host-based IDS (HIDS) can be installed on individual workstations and/ or servers to watch for inappropriate or anomalous activity. HIDSs are usually used to make sure users do not delete system files, reconfigure important settings, or put the system at risk in any other way.

So, whereas the NIDS understands and monitors the network traffic, a HIDS’s universe is limited to the computer itself. A HIDS does not understand or review network traffic, and a NIDS does not “look in” and monitor a system’s activity. Each has its own job and stays out of the other’s way.

The ISC2 official study book defines an IDS as:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a technology that alerts organizations to adverse or unwanted activity. An IDS can be implemented as part of a network device, such as a router, switch, or firewall, or it can be a dedicated IDS device monitoring traffic as it traverses the network. When used in this way, it is referred to as a network IDS, or NIDS. IDS can also be used on individual host systems to monitor and report on file, disk, and process activity on that host. When used in this way it is referred to as a host-based IDS, or HIDS.

An IDS is informative by nature and provides real-time information when suspicious activities are identified. It is primarily a detective device and, acting in this traditional role, is not used to directly prevent the suspected attack.

What about IPS?

In contrast, an intrusion prevention system (IPS), is a technology that monitors activity like an IDS but will automatically take proactive preventative action if it detects unacceptable activity. An IPS permits a predetermined set of functions and actions to occur on a network or system; anything that is not permitted is considered unwanted activity and blocked. IPS is engineered specifically to respond in real time to an event at the system or network layer. By proactively enforcing policy, IPS can thwart not only attackers, but also authorized users attempting to perform an action that is not within policy. Fundamentally, IPS is considered an access control and policy enforcement technology, whereas IDS is considered network monitoring and audit technology.

The following answers were incorrect:
All of the other answer were advantages and not drawback of using HIDS

Be familiar with the differences that exists between an HIDS, NIDS, and IPS. Know that IDS’s are mostly detective but IPS are preventive. IPS’s are considered an access control and policy enforcement technology, whereas IDS’s are considered network monitoring and audit technology.

Attributes that characterize an attack are stored for reference using which of the following Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

A.    signature-based IDS
B.    statistical anomaly-based IDS
C.    event-based IDS
D.    inferent-based IDS

Answer: A

Which of the following is an issue with signature-based intrusion detection systems?

A.    Only previously identified attack signatures are detected.
B.    Signature databases must be augmented with inferential elements.
C.    It runs only on the windows operating system
D.    Hackers can circumvent signature evaluations.

Answer: A
An issue with signature-based ID is that only attack signatures that are stored in their database are detected.
New attacks without a signature would not be reported. They do require constant updates in order to maintain their effectiveness.

Which of the following is an IDS that acquires data and defines a “normal” usage profile for the network or host?

A.    Statistical Anomaly-Based ID
B.    Signature-Based ID
C.    dynamical anomaly-based ID
D.    inferential anomaly-based ID

Answer: A
Statistical Anomaly-Based ID – With this method, an IDS acquires data and defines a “normal” usage profile for the network or host that is being monitored.

Which of the following is most relevant to determining the maximum effective cost of access control?

A.    the value of information that is protected.
B.    management’s perceptions regarding data importance.
C.    budget planning related to base versus incremental spending.
D.    the cost to replace lost data.

Answer: A
The cost of access control must be commensurate with the value of the information that is being protected.

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The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a corporation decided to move all email to a cloud computing environment.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) was told to research the risk involved in this environment.
Which of the following measures should be implemented to minimize the risk of hosting email in the cloud?

A.    Remind users that all emails with sensitive information need be encrypted and physically
inspect the cloud computing.
B.    Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and obtain an NDA and an SLA from the
cloud provider.
C.    Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and remind users to encrypt all emails that
contain sensitive information.
D.    Obtain an NDA from the cloud provider and remind users that all emails with sensitive
information need be encrypted. Continue reading

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In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?

A.    Full operational test
B.    Walk-through test
C.    Penetration test
D.    Paper test

Answer: C

Which of the following DITSCAP phases validates that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment?

A.    Phase 4
B.    Phase 3
C.    Phase 2
D.    Phase 1

Answer: B

Which of the following techniques are used after a security breach and are intended to limit the extent of any damage caused by the incident?

A.    Safeguards
B.    Preventive controls
C.    Detective controls
D.    Corrective controls

Answer: D

Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?

A.    Chief Risk Officer
B.    Data owner
C.    Designated Approving Authority
D.    Chief Information Officer

Answer: C

In which of the following phases of the DITSCAP process does Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occur?

A.    Phase 2
B.    Phase 3
C.    Phase 1
D.    Phase 4

Answer: B

What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and documenting changes created to the project scope?

A.    Configuration Management System
B.    Project Management InformationSystem
C.    Scope Verification
D.    Integrated Change Control

Answer: A

A project team member has just identified a new project risk. The risk event is determined to have significant impact but a low probability in the project. Should the risk event happen it’ll cause the project to be delayed by three weeks, which will cause new risk in the project. What should the project manager do with the risk event?

A.    Add the identified risk to a quality control management control chart.
B.    Add the identified risk to the risk register.
C.    Add the identified risk to the issues log.
D.    Add the identified risk to the low-level risk watchlist.

Answer: B

Which of the following concepts represent the three fundamental principles of information security?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A.    Privacy
B.    Integrity
C.    Availability
D.    Confidentiality

Answer: BCD

Which of the following governance bodies provides management, operational and technical controls to satisfy security requirements?

A.    Chief Information Security Officer
B.    Senior Management
C.    Information Security Steering Committee
D.    Business Unit Manager

Answer: B

Your organization has a project that is expected to last 20 months but the customer would really like the project completed in 18 months. You have worked on similar projects in the past and believe that you could fast track the project and reach the 18 month deadline. What increases when you fast track a project?

A.    Risks
B.    Costs
C.    Resources
D.    Communication

Answer: A

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What is the function of Band Steering?

A.    Balancing clients across APs on different channels within the same band
B.    Encourages clients, 5GHz capable, to connect on the 5GHz spectrum
C.    Coordinate access to the same channel across multiple APs
D.    Enables selection of 20 vs. 40 MHz mode of operation per band
E.    Enables acceptable coverage index on both the “b/g” and “a” spectrums Continue reading

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Which two options are reasons why we are seeing increasing levels of business-led change? (Choose two.)

A.    Because IT solutions are going through a trend of decreasing costs.
B.    Because business requirements are changing rapidly.
C.    Because the technology led change is too expensive.
D.    Because of the disruption created by the megatrends: cloud, mobility, big data, video. Continue reading

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Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)

A.    Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
B.    Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
C.    Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
D.    Use the right verbal and corporate language.
E.    Know your audience and what is of interest to them.

Answer: ABE

Which option is the most effective way to use best practices or scenarios during the selling process?

A.    in use cases that are relevant to the customer
B.    in business cases used previously
C.    in customer briefing documents
D.    in customer benefits statements

Answer: A

Why is it convenient to tie business outcomes and the customer value proposition?

A.    Because it accelerates the time to market of new products and solutions while maintaining a reasonable cost structure.
B.    Because this way you can establish fixed business goals and priorities and facilitate the deployment project management.
C.    To reduce complexity for stakeholders, it is easier for them to describe the benefits and to influence others to gain support.
D.    Because it keeps the value proposition unchanged, it is easier for stakeholders to claim for accountability.

Answer: C

Which option is the main element of a Business Outcomes storyline?

A.    relevancy to customers’ strategy
B.    Cisco differentiators
C.    Cisco products
D.    guaranteed customer ROI

Answer: A

Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)

A.    Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B.    Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C.    Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D.    Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.

Answer: AC

You are working to understand a customer business environment. Which two options are preferred data gathering techniques? (Choose two.)

A.    surveys
B.    interviews
C.    asking competitors
D.    stock analysis reports
E.    social media

Answer: AB

Which statement best describes the Cisco sales approach?

A.    Understand the goals of the buyer.
B.    Focus on Cisco technologies already in place.
C.    Focus on fulfilling customer needs and help them generate value through stronger business outcomes.
D.    Pay attention to details that the customer is sharing about their needs.

Answer: C

Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. What approach is frequently used to achieve business outcomes?

A.    Using Next Generation IT to increase service quality. Also, reducing risk, complexity and costs
B.    Refining, enriching or developing & enabling new business processes, new markets, and customer interactions
C.    Taking advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
D.    Improving agility & ability to create or deploy high quality, differentiated, innovative services for end users

Answer: B

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Howmany simultaneous HDcalls can be supported on a Cisco MeetingServer 1000?

A.    24
B.    96
C.    108
D.    48 Continue reading

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Consider the process that begins with file retrospection, continues to interrogate the file and update its disposition over time, then records the pathway that the software and files take from device to device. This process is an example of which Cisco AMP feature?

A.    file reputation
B.    attack chain weaving
C.    breach hunting
D.    file sandboxing
E.    machine learning

Answer: B

How does the Device Trajectory feature work?

A.    It searches for potential threats based on identified activities.
B.    It tracks file behavior across the network to see which devices it enters and exits.
C.    It analyzes the data from file and process retrospection to provide a new level of threat intelligence.
D.    It isolates suspicious files and runs tests to determine their authenticity.
E.    It tracks file behavior on a device to pinpoint the root cause of a compromise.

Answer: E

Which Cisco Secure Access solution should you recommend to a customer who is experiencing access complications due to too many policies and too many user groups?

A.    Cisco AnyConnect
B.    Cisco TrustSec
C.    Cisco ISE
D.    Cisco AMP for Endpoints
E.    Cisco site-to-site VPN
F.    Cisco SIO

Answer: B

Which statement best describes Cisco ISE?

A.    Cisco ISE consolidates user AAA, Security Group Access features, and ScanSafe functionality into one product.
B.    Cisco ISE consolidates user authentication with NAC components into one solution.
C.    Cisco ISE provides AAA features, guest provisioning, and device profiling features in the base feature set; link encryption policies, host posture, and security group access require the advanced feature set.
D.    Cisco ISE combines the capabilities of Cisco Secure ACS and Cisco Virtual Security Gateway into one product.

Answer: B

Which two statements about the capabilities of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client for Windows are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It supports always-on connectivity by automatically establishing a VPN connection as needed. If multiple VPN gateways exist, load sharing occurs in a Round-robin fashion.
B.    It supports session persistence after hibernation or standby.
C.    Trusted Network Detection allows the connection to be established without any user intervention (authentication), if the client is located inside the office.
D.    It is exclusively configured by central policies; no local configuration is possible.
E.    The order of policy enforcement is as follows: dynamic access policy, user attributes, tunnel group, group policy attributes.

Answer: BC

Which statement about wireless intrusion prevention and rogue access point detection is true?

A.    A local mode access point provides power to wireless clients.
B.    A monitor mode access point performs background scanning in order to detect rogue access points.
C.    A monitor mode access point is dedicated to scanning (listen-only).
D.    A monitor mode access point can distribute a white list of all known access points.
E.    Any access point that broadcasts the same RF group name or is part of the same mobility group is considered to be a rogue access point.

Answer: C

Which Cisco technology solution can resolve a customer’s inability to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources, while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?

A.    Cisco TrustSec
B.    Cisco Data Center Management Policy Implementation
C.    Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
D.    Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
E.    Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F.    Cisco Secure Data Center
G.    Cisco Security Intelligence Operations

Answer: A

Which two advanced malware protection features are available on Cisco AMP for Content? (Choose two.)

A.    URL filtering
B.    retrospective security
C.    attack chain weaving
D.    breach hunting
E.    trajectory
F.    behavioral indications of compromise

Answer: AB

Which option best describes granular app control using application visibility and control?

A.    blocking harmful sites based on content, such as pokerstars.com
B.    blocking World of Warcraft but allowing Google+
C.    blocking Facebook games but allowing Facebook posts
D.    blocking Twitter to increase employee productivity

Answer: C

The first phase of email security analyzes “who-what-where-when-how” information and context-based policies during which component of threat detection?

A.    antivirus defense
B.    advanced malware protection for email
C.    outbreak filters
D.    data loss prevention
E.    encryption
F.    antispam defense

Answer: F

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Cisco Finesse supports the use of custom call variable layouts. How does the agent desktop determine which layout to use?

A.    The name of the layout is passed to the agent desktop via a keyword variable that is named user layout.
B.    The layout is associated to the team under Team Resources.
C.    The layout is associated to the CSQ definition.
D.    The layout is associated to the desktop layout under Team Resources.

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Your customer wants to configure LSCs and asks for specific information about which number to configure in the text box right next to the “Number of Attempts”. Which statement is true?

A.    The default number of attempts is 100.
B.    A value of 2 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC, the AP attempts to Join the Cisco WLC using the default certificate
C.    A value of 255 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC,the AP does not attempt to join the Cisco WLC using the default .
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Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given command sequence? Continue reading

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Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)

A.    XML
B.    RIB
C.    FIB
D.    QoS
E.    PFI

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